ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drug Safety Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following would be an appropriate therapeutic adjustment for the 65-year-old man with acute distress and cardiac failure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because discontinuing digoxin and starting losartan is the appropriate therapeutic adjustment for a 65-year-old man with acute distress and cardiac failure. Digoxin is not recommended in the acute phase of heart failure as it can worsen symptoms. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is beneficial in heart failure by improving outcomes and reducing hospitalizations. Discontinuing digoxin eliminates the risk of toxicity and adverse effects. Other choices are incorrect because adding potassium supplementation (Choice A) can increase the risk of hyperkalemia, adding atropine (Choice B) is not indicated in heart failure, and increasing furosemide dose (Choice C) may lead to electrolyte imbalances without addressing the underlying cause.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is directly acting vascular smooth muscle relaxant?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
The client is taking an ACE inhibitor. For what reason might the client be taking this drug?select one that does not apply
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
The client is having a standard electrocardiogram. The nurse knows that the P wave represents what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.