Which of the following will have the greatest implication on a client scheduled for a percutaneous liver biopsy?

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Gastrointestinal Diseases NCLEX Review Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following will have the greatest implication on a client scheduled for a percutaneous liver biopsy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of coagulation studies. This is because coagulation studies assess the client's ability to form blood clots, which is crucial for a percutaneous liver biopsy to prevent excessive bleeding. It helps determine the risk of bleeding complications during the procedure. Choice B, Allergy to iodine, is incorrect because an allergy to iodine is more relevant in procedures involving contrast media, not typically in percutaneous liver biopsies. Choice C, Family history of GI disorders, is incorrect as it does not directly impact the client's safety or outcome during a percutaneous liver biopsy. Choice D, Presence of radioactive material in the work environment, is also incorrect as it is not directly related to the procedure or its implications on the client's safety during a percutaneous liver biopsy.

Question 2 of 5

After eating, a patient with an inflamed gallbladder experiences pain caused by contraction of the gallbladder. What is the mechanism responsible for this action?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Production of cholecystokinin by the duodenum. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fatty acids and amino acids. It stimulates the gallbladder to contract, causing the release of bile into the small intestine to aid in digestion. This is directly related to the patient's symptoms of gallbladder pain after eating, as the contraction of the gallbladder is triggered by CCK. A: Production of bile by the liver is not the mechanism responsible for the gallbladder contraction. B: Production of secretin by the duodenum is involved in regulating the pH of the duodenum, not gallbladder contraction. C: Release of gastrin from the stomach antrum is related to stomach acid secretion, not gallbladder contraction. In summary, the correct answer, D, is directly related to the mechanism responsible for gallbladder pain after eating,

Question 3 of 5

To evaluate the effect of nutritional interventions for a patient with protein-calorie malnutrition, what is the best indicator for the nurse to use?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold are commonly used indicators to assess muscle and fat reserves in individuals with protein-calorie malnutrition. Mid-upper arm circumference reflects muscle mass, while triceps skinfold measures body fat. These indicators provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's nutritional status, making them the best choice for evaluating the effectiveness of nutritional interventions. A: Height and weight do not provide a specific assessment of muscle and fat reserves and may not accurately reflect changes in nutritional status. B: Weight in relation to ideal body weight does not differentiate between muscle and fat mass, making it less specific for assessing protein-calorie malnutrition. C: BMI is a general indicator of weight status and does not specifically measure muscle and fat reserves, making it less suitable for evaluating nutritional interventions in patients with protein-calorie malnutrition.

Question 4 of 5

Which female patient is most likely to have metabolic syndrome?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's blood pressure, HDL levels, and fasting blood glucose levels all indicate a higher likelihood of metabolic syndrome. High blood pressure, low HDL levels, and elevated blood glucose are key components of metabolic syndrome. Option A has normal blood pressure and slightly elevated triglycerides and blood glucose, but not as concerning as choice B. Option C has a normal blood pressure, slightly elevated triglycerides, and good HDL levels, which lowers the likelihood of metabolic syndrome. Option D has a normal blood pressure, very low HDL levels, and slightly elevated blood glucose, but the blood pressure is not in the hypertensive range as in choice B.

Question 5 of 5

What type of pain does the nurse expect a patient with an ulcer of the posterior portion of the duodenum to experience?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Back pain that occurs 2 to 4 hours following meals. This type of pain is characteristic of duodenal ulcers due to increased acid secretion post-meals. Pain occurs when acidic stomach contents enter the duodenum, stimulating pain receptors. Back pain is common as the ulcer is located in the posterior portion of the duodenum. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the typical pain pattern of a duodenal ulcer. Choice A is more indicative of gastritis, Choice C is suggestive of peptic ulcer disease, and Choice D is more characteristic of gastric ulcers.

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