ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following will be present in chronic bacterial infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monocytosis. In chronic bacterial infections, there is a prolonged immune response leading to an increased production of monocytes to help combat the infection. Neutrophilia (choice A) is more characteristic of acute bacterial infections. Basophilia (choice B) is associated with allergic reactions or certain blood disorders, not typically seen in bacterial infections. Lymphocytosis (choice C) is more common in viral infections or certain immune responses, not specific to chronic bacterial infections.
Question 2 of 5
After seven days of treatment with sulfonamides, a patient's hemoglobin had decreased from 14.7 gm/100ml to 10gm/100ml. The most likely cause of hemolysis in this patient is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD). G6PD deficiency can cause hemolysis in response to oxidative stress, such as medications like sulfonamides. The decrease in hemoglobin levels after sulfonamide treatment indicates hemolysis, which is a common manifestation of G6PD deficiency. Sickle cell disease (A), thalassemia minor (B), and hereditary spherocytosis (C) do not typically present with hemolysis triggered by sulfonamides. G6PD deficiency is the most likely cause in this scenario due to the timing of hemolysis after the drug exposure and the characteristic response of G6PD-deficient red blood cells to oxidative stress.
Question 3 of 5
A 36-year-old woman presented with weakness, lassitude, and feeling easily tired. Her bone marrow aspirate showed 15% myeloblasts and reduced erythropoiesis. The most likely cause is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Myelodysplastic syndrome. Given the patient's age, symptoms, and bone marrow findings of myeloblasts with reduced erythropoiesis, it aligns with the characteristics of myelodysplastic syndrome. This condition involves abnormal blood cell production leading to cytopenias and an increased risk of progression to acute myeloid leukemia. Acute myeloid leukemia (Choice A) typically presents with higher blast percentages and more aggressive symptoms. Acute lymphoid leukemia (Choice B) is less likely due to the presence of myeloblasts in the bone marrow. Myelofibrosis (Choice C) is characterized by fibrosis in the bone marrow, which is not indicated in this case.
Question 4 of 5
The following pathological features is true regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because B cell phenotype is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). This is supported by the fact that the majority of NHL cases arise from B cells in the lymphoid tissue. Choice A is incorrect as RS cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma, not NHL. Choice C is incorrect because NHL can involve non-contiguous lymph nodes. Choice D is incorrect because NHL can have a leukemic phase known as leukemic lymphoma.
Question 5 of 5
In the laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis, the expected parasite stage in vitro is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Promastigote. In the laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis, the expected parasite stage in vitro is the promastigote form. This is because the promastigote form is the stage of the parasite that lives in the sandfly vector and is transmitted to humans, causing infection. In vitro, the promastigote form can be cultured and studied for diagnostic purposes. Incorrect choices: A: Amastigote - This is the intracellular form of the parasite found in mammalian hosts and not typically used for laboratory diagnosis. C: Trypomastigote - This form is typically associated with Trypanosoma species, not Leishmania. D: Schizont - This term is used for malaria parasites, not Leishmania parasites. In summary, the promastigote form is the most relevant stage for laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis due to its presence in the sandfly vector and its ability to