ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that specifically targets viruses that belong to the herpes virus family by inhibiting their replication. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it has a thymidine kinase enzyme that activates acyclovir into its active form, which then interferes with viral DNA synthesis. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus also has this enzyme, but it is not as effective against acyclovir compared to Type 1. Varicella-zoster virus and Epstein-Barr virus do not have the thymidine kinase enzyme necessary for acyclovir activation, making them less susceptible to the drug.
Question 2 of 5
Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. At higher concentrations, it can disrupt bacterial cell membranes, making it bactericidal. Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis, Chloramphenicol blocks peptide bond formation, and Ampicillin disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis. Therefore, A is correct because of its dual mechanism of action.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.
Question 4 of 5
A 35 year old man presents to the ER with severe headache. After lab workup, patient is diagnosed to have increased intracranial pressure. Which diuretic would work best to reduce this pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and reducing intracranial pressure. It is commonly used in cases of increased intracranial pressure due to its ability to easily cross the blood-brain barrier and reduce cerebral edema. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic mainly used for hypertension and not effective for this condition. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can reduce CSF production but is not as effective as mannitol for rapid reduction of intracranial pressure. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic that primarily acts on the kidneys and is not as effective as mannitol for reducing intracranial pressure.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has low cardiac output due to poor cardiac function. He is eclematous. Which one of the following should be avoided because it can aggravate cardiac dysfunctions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can worsen heart failure by increasing plasma volume and exacerbating the workload on the heart. Furosemide (A) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are loop and thiazide diuretics, respectively, commonly used to manage fluid overload in heart failure patients. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can be beneficial in heart failure by counteracting potassium loss caused by other diuretics.