ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following viruses does not belong to family Paramyxoviridae:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rubella virus. Rubella virus does not belong to the family Paramyxoviridae because it belongs to the Togaviridae family. The other choices, A (Measles virus), B (Respiratory syncytial virus), and C (Mumps virus) are all members of the Paramyxoviridae family. This classification is based on the genetic and structural characteristics of the viruses. Rubella virus is distinct in its genetic composition and replication cycle compared to the Paramyxoviridae family, making it the correct choice.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to colonize the skin and mucous membranes of healthcare workers and patients. Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections, including surgical site infections and bloodstream infections, in healthcare settings. Rationale: 1. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing foodborne botulism, not hospital-acquired infections. 2. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, not hospital settings. 3. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, which is not commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections. In summary, Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer as it is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its prevalence in healthcare environments, unlike the other choices which are not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 3 of 9
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rickettsia rickettsii. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a bacterium transmitted by ticks. This pathogen primarily affects the endothelial cells of blood vessels, leading to vasculitis. Borrelia burgdorferi (choice A) causes Lyme disease, not Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Rickettsia prowazekii (choice C) causes epidemic typhus, and Ehrlichia chaffeensis (choice D) causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis, both of which are distinct from Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the specific etiology of the disease.
Question 4 of 9
A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.
Question 5 of 9
Laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.
Question 6 of 9
A fecal smear from a patient with severe diarrhea revealed motile Gram-negative rods with a comma shape. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium is the likely causative agent because it is known to cause severe diarrhea, and it is characterized by its motile, comma-shaped Gram-negative rods. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin, leading to profuse watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery with bloody diarrhea, Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, and Escherichia coli can cause various types of diarrhea but typically does not have a comma shape.
Question 7 of 9
A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast
Question 8 of 9
Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.
Question 9 of 9
A vaginal yeast infection is typically caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is the most common cause of vaginal yeast infections due to its ability to overgrow in warm, moist environments like the vagina. It is a type of fungus that naturally resides in the body, but can cause infection when its growth is not regulated. Histoplasma capsulatum (A) causes a lung infection, Aspergillus niger (C) causes fungal sinusitis, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D) is a type of yeast used in baking and brewing, not typically associated with vaginal infections.