Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are correct. Candida albicans can cause skin infections such as candidiasis. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are common bacteria that can also cause skin infections. Therefore, choice B is correct as all three microorganisms listed can cause skin infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because individually, each of the microorganisms listed can cause skin infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because immunomodulators can indeed be natural (e.g., cytokines) or artificial compounds (e.g., synthetic peptides). They work by modulating the immune response, enhancing or suppressing it as needed. Choice A is incorrect because immunomodulators can stimulate both humoral and cellular immune responses. Choice B is incorrect as isoniazid is primarily an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, not an immunomodulator. Choice D is incorrect because immunomodulators can have varying effects on the immune response, not just suppress it.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is associated with stomach ulcers as it can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and produce substances that weaken the stomach lining. Escherichia coli (A) is associated with foodborne illnesses, not ulcers. Bacillus cereus (C) causes food poisoning. Clostridium difficile (D) is associated with antibiotic-associated colitis, not ulcers. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer based on its specific association with stomach ulcers.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Innate immunity (natural resistance). Innate immunity refers to the non-specific defense mechanisms that act against a variety of infectious agents. This includes physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular components like phagocytes and natural killer cells. Adaptive immunity (A) is specific and involves the production of antibodies and immune memory (B), which are not part of the initial non-specific response. Antibodies (C) are part of the adaptive immune response and are produced in response to specific pathogens, not part of the non-specific innate defense factors.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The function of bacterial pili is to aid in adhesion. Pili are hair-like structures on the bacterial surface that help the bacteria attach to surfaces or other cells. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. Pili do not provide motility, as that is typically done by flagella. Bacteria form spores for survival under harsh conditions, and protein synthesis is carried out by ribosomes, not pili. Thus, the correct answer is B, aiding in adhesion.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fires from flammable metals require specialized Class D fire extinguishers designed to extinguish these unique types of fires. Class A, B, and C fire extinguishers are not suitable for flammable metal fires as they are designed for different types of materials and fire classes. Class A extinguishers are for ordinary combustibles, Class B for flammable liquids, and Class C for electrical fires. Therefore, Class D fire extinguishers are specifically designed for flammable metal fires, making them the correct choice for this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Togaviridae is a family of viruses known to have non-segmented (+)ssRNA as their genetic material. Step 2: The positive sense RNA means that the viral RNA can be directly translated into proteins by host machinery. Step 3: This RNA genome acts as mRNA, allowing for immediate translation of viral proteins. Step 4: Therefore, choice C is correct as it accurately describes the genetic nature of Togaviridae. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have helical symmetry. - Choice B is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have non-segmented (-)dsRNA. - Choice D is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses are enveloped viruses.