Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis as it specifically infects the lungs and can spread to other parts of the body. Mycobacterium leprae (A) causes leprosy, Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) causes pneumonia, and Clostridium botulinum (D) causes botulism, making them incorrect choices for tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis has unique characteristics and mechanisms that enable it to cause tuberculosis, such as its ability to evade the immune system and form granulomas in the lungs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Patients planned for treatment with monoclonal antibodies should be tested for HBV, HCV, and M. tuberculosis due to the risk of reactivation of these infections during treatment. HBV and HCV reactivation can lead to severe liver damage, while M. tuberculosis reactivation can cause serious respiratory complications. Testing for all three infections helps in identifying and managing any pre-existing infections to ensure patient safety during monoclonal antibody treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these infections presents specific risks that need to be assessed before initiating monoclonal antibody therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: They are enveloped viruses. Rhabdoviridae family consists of enveloped viruses, which means they have a lipid envelope surrounding their protein coat. This envelope helps the virus in infecting host cells and evading the immune system. The other choices are incorrect because B: They cause plague is not true as Rhabdoviridae family typically causes diseases like rabies in mammals. C: They have spherical shape is incorrect as rhabdoviruses have a bullet-shaped structure. D: They infect only humans is also incorrect as Rhabdoviridae viruses can infect a wide range of hosts beyond just humans.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Poxviruses are indeed DNA viruses, confirmed by scientific research. Step 2: Poxviruses replicate entirely in the cytoplasm, unlike most DNA viruses. Step 3: Cytoplasmic replication is a unique characteristic of poxviruses. Step 4: The replication process of poxviruses in the cytoplasm is well-documented. Step 5: Therefore, option A (TRUE) is correct, as poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm exclusively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mumps. Group II diseases are vaccine-preventable diseases that are communicable and can cause outbreaks. Mumps fits this criteria as it is preventable through vaccination, easily transmitted through respiratory droplets, and can lead to outbreaks in communities. Anthrax (A) is a zoonotic disease, Lyme disease (B) is transmitted by ticks, and Smallpox (D) has been eradicated.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Aspergillus flavus is a fungus known to produce aflatoxin. 2. Aflatoxin is a potent carcinogen found in contaminated food. 3. Candida albicans is a yeast species not associated with aflatoxin production. 4. Claviceps purpurea is a fungus that produces ergot alkaloids, not aflatoxin. 5. Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium known for causing food poisoning, not aflatoxin production. Summary: Aspergillus flavus is the correct answer as it is the organism known to produce aflatoxin, a carcinogenic substance. Other choices are incorrect as they are not associated with aflatoxin production.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because adaptive immunity is not mainly observed in the skin and mucous membranes. Adaptive immunity is a systemic response that involves specific immune cells and antibodies targeting specific pathogens. It develops immune memory (B), meaning it can recognize and respond faster upon re-exposure to the same pathogen. Adaptive immunity also has specificity (C), as it can target specific antigens. Lastly, adaptive immunity is not evolutionarily newer in comparison to innate immunity (D), as both systems have co-evolved to provide comprehensive protection against pathogens.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is commonly known as "flesh-eating bacteria" due to its ability to cause severe tissue destruction and necrotizing fasciitis. Streptococcus pyogenes produces toxins that break down skin and muscle tissues. Staphylococcus aureus (A) can cause skin infections but is not typically associated with necrotizing fasciitis. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is a normal skin flora and rarely causes infections. Propionibacterium acnes (D) is associated with acne and not known for causing tissue destruction. Therefore, the correct choice is Streptococcus pyogenes due to its unique ability to cause severe tissue damage and necrotizing fasciitis.