Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which are important for protection and pathogenicity. This outer membrane is a unique feature of Gram-negative bacteria and is not present in Gram-positive bacteria, making it a key characteristic. A: Incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer compared to Gram-positive bacteria. C: Incorrect because teichoic acids are a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria, not Gram-negative bacteria. D: Incorrect because all bacteria, including Gram-negative bacteria, have a cell wall.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbenicillin disodium. Carbenicillin is a semisynthetic penicillin that has marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is due to its extended spectrum of activity and increased stability against beta-lactamases produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Carbenicillin is commonly used to treat infections caused by this bacterium. Choice B: Benzylpenicillin (Penicillin G) has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice C: Methicillin is not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice D: Oxacillin also has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. In summary, Carbenicillin is the correct choice due to its marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa compared to the other penicillins listed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Poxviruses are indeed DNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm. This is due to their complex structure that allows them to carry out their replication process in the cytoplasm of the host cell. Other choices are incorrect because poxviruses specifically replicate in the cytoplasm and do not require the nucleus for replication, ruling out choice B. Choice C is incorrect because poxviruses consistently replicate in the cytoplasm regardless of the situation. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: K-antigen. H. Influenzae types are classified based on their capsular polysaccharides, which are known as K-antigens. The K-antigen is a major virulence factor and plays a crucial role in the pathogenicity of H. Influenzae. The other options (A, C, D) are not used to classify H. Influenzae types. Vi-antigen is related to Salmonella serotyping, O-antigen is characteristic of gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Salmonella, and H-antigen is typically associated with flagellar antigens of bacteria like Salmonella and E. coli.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Syphilis. The spiral microorganisms described are characteristic of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. The thin and mobile bacteria with 8-12 regular coils match the morphology of Treponema pallidum. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, which are thicker and have hook-like ends, different from the described bacteria. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which has a different appearance than the thin, coiled bacteria in the smear. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia recurrentis, which typically have irregular coils, unlike the regular coils seen in the smear.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is the causative agent of plague, a serious infectious disease transmitted through fleas. It causes bubonic, pneumonic, and septicemic plague. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, Rickettsia prowazekii causes epidemic typhus, and Treponema pallidum causes syphilis. Y. pestis is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with plague, making the other options incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ascomycota. Penicillin is produced by the mold Penicillium, which belongs to the phylum Ascomycota. Ascomycota is known for its sac-like structures called asci that contain ascospores. Penicillium produces penicillin as a defense mechanism against bacteria. Basidiomycota (A) are known for producing mushrooms, Zygomycota (C) includes bread molds like Rhizopus, and Deuteromycota (D) is a classification for fungi with no known sexual reproductive stage.