Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?

Questions 82

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundations in microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.

Question 2 of 9

It is planned to use the territory of an old cattle burial ground (which is not used for more than 50 years) for building houses. But ground analysis revealed presence of the pathogen of the very dangerous illness. Which of the indicated microorgonisms is likely to remain in the ground for such a long time?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillus anthracis is a spore-forming bacterium that can survive for decades in the soil. 2. The spores are resistant to harsh conditions and can remain dormant for long periods. 3. This resilience allows Bacillus anthracis to persist in the old cattle burial ground for over 50 years. 4. Mycobacterium bovis, Brucella abortus, and Francisella tularensis are not known for long-term survival in soil. Summary: - Mycobacterium bovis, Brucella abortus, and Francisella tularensis do not have the spore-forming ability. - Mycobacterium bovis causes tuberculosis in cattle. - Brucella abortus causes brucellosis in cattle. - Francisella tularensis causes tularemia in animals and humans.

Question 3 of 9

In humans, the embryonic phase of development extends from fertilization to the end of week __________, after which the developing infant is called a fetus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8. The embryonic phase in humans lasts until the end of week 8. During this time, the major organs and structures of the body begin to form. After week 8, the developing organism is referred to as a fetus. Choice A (2) is too early for this transition to occur, Choice B (6) is also premature, and Choice D (12) is too late as the embryonic phase ends before week 12. Therefore, the correct answer is C (8) as it accurately reflects the timeline of embryonic development in humans.

Question 4 of 9

Ionizing radiation involves all of the following except

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ionizing radiation has enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, creating charged particles (ions). UV light does not have enough energy to ionize atoms, making choice A the correct answer. Gamma rays, electron beams, and X-rays all have sufficient energy to cause ionization. Gamma rays are very high-energy electromagnetic radiation, electron beams are streams of high-energy electrons, and X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation as well.

Question 5 of 9

Gram-negative bacteria have a cell wall that:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, as Gram-negative bacteria have a cell wall containing lipopolysaccharides. This outer membrane structure is unique to Gram-negative bacteria and plays a critical role in pathogenicity and immune response. Teichoic acid (choice A) is found in Gram-positive bacteria. The cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria is thinner than that of Gram-positive bacteria (choice B). The cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria is not composed entirely of peptidoglycan (choice D), as it also contains other components like lipopolysaccharides.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with a long history of chronic gastritis undergoes a gastroscopy, which detects an ulcer in the duodenum area. Microscopic examination of the tissue biopsy developed Gram-negative curved bacteria and the rapid urease activity test of the biopsy material was highly positive. The most likely cause of the disease is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Helicobacter pylori. Helicobacter pylori is a known bacterium associated with causing duodenal ulcers. The presence of Gram-negative curved bacteria in the biopsy along with a highly positive rapid urease test is characteristic of H. pylori infection. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not duodenal ulcers. Campylobacter fetus is associated with gastroenteritis, not duodenal ulcers. Acinetobacter baumannii is a nosocomial pathogen, not typically associated with duodenal ulcers. In summary, the unique combination of findings in this case points towards H. pylori as the most likely cause of the disease.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following diseases is considered to fall in the group II category?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mumps. Group II diseases are vaccine-preventable diseases that are communicable and can cause outbreaks. Mumps fits this criteria as it is preventable through vaccination, easily transmitted through respiratory droplets, and can lead to outbreaks in communities. Anthrax (A) is a zoonotic disease, Lyme disease (B) is transmitted by ticks, and Smallpox (D) has been eradicated.

Question 8 of 9

What is the function of bacterial pili?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The function of bacterial pili is to aid in adhesion. Pili are hair-like structures on the bacterial surface that help the bacteria attach to surfaces or other cells. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. Pili do not provide motility, as that is typically done by flagella. Bacteria form spores for survival under harsh conditions, and protein synthesis is carried out by ribosomes, not pili. Thus, the correct answer is B, aiding in adhesion.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days