ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following viruses belong to the family Herpesviridae?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A: Epstein-Barr virus): 1. Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, known for causing infectious mononucleosis. 2. Members of Herpesviridae have double-stranded DNA genomes and enveloped virions. 3. They establish latent infections in host cells and can reactivate periodically. 4. Poxvirus (B) belongs to the Poxviridae family, not Herpesviridae. 5. SARS (C) is caused by a coronavirus, not a herpesvirus. 6. HIV (D) belongs to the Retroviridae family, not Herpesviridae. Summary: The correct answer is A because Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, exhibiting specific characteristics distinct from the other choices.
Question 2 of 5
A child entering the school for the first time was given Mantoux test in order to determine if there was a need for revaccination. The reaction was negative. What is the meaning of this test result?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis. A negative Mantoux test indicates the presence of an immune response to the TB bacteria, as the test measures the body's delayed hypersensitivity reaction to TB antigens. This means the child has been exposed to TB in the past or has been vaccinated, resulting in the development of cell-mediated immunity against TB. Incorrect choices: A: No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis - This is incorrect as a negative Mantoux test actually indicates the presence of cell-mediated immunity. C: No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria - Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity, not antibody response. D: No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis - Mantoux test does not assess anti-toxic immunity, it specifically measures cell-mediated immunity.
Question 3 of 5
Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Question 5 of 5
A 43-year-old cattle farm worker is brought to the surgeon with fever, malaise, and inflamed lesions on his hands and arms. He reports that about 2 weeks before his presentation at the hospital he noticed small, painless, pruritic papules that quickly enlarged and developed a central vesicle. The vesicles developed into erosion and left painless necrotic ulcers with black, depressed eschar. Gram's staining of the ulcer reveals gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.