Which of the following viruses belong to family Arenaviridae

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following viruses belong to family Arenaviridae

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus is a member of the Arenaviridae family, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Arenaviridae family includes viruses with a segmented genome and are transmitted through rodents. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus (Choice B) belongs to the Bunyaviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 4. Rabies virus (Choice C) belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 5. Epstein-Barr virus (Choice D) belongs to the Herpesviridae family, not Arenaviridae. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct choice as it aligns with the characteristics of the Arenaviridae family, while the other choices belong to different virus families.

Question 2 of 9

Botulism is a disease caused by the production of a potent neurotoxin by bacteria of the genus:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clostridium. Clostridium bacteria produce the neurotoxin responsible for botulism. Clostridium botulinum is specifically known for causing this disease. Staphylococcus (A), Klebsiella (B), and Salmonella (C) do not produce the neurotoxin associated with botulism. Staphylococcus typically causes skin infections, Klebsiella is often associated with pneumonia and urinary tract infections, and Salmonella is known for causing food poisoning. Therefore, the correct answer is Clostridium due to its specific association with botulism.

Question 3 of 9

On microscopic examination of leftovers of the canned meat eaten by patient with severe food toxicoinfection the following was detected: gram-positive bacilli with subterminal staining defect and configuration alteration of bacilli generally resembling a tennis racket. What agent was detected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: C. botulinum. The description of gram-positive bacilli with subterminal staining defect and tennis racket appearance is characteristic of Clostridium botulinum. The subterminal staining defect indicates the presence of spores, a feature of Clostridium species. The tennis racket appearance refers to the characteristic shape of C. botulinum spores. Choice B, P. vulgaris, is a gram-negative bacterium and doesn't match the description. Choice C, E. coli, is a gram-negative bacillus and doesn't exhibit the subterminal staining defect described. Choice D, S. aureus, is a gram-positive cocci and does not resemble the tennis racket appearance described.

Question 4 of 9

Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Galactomannan is a polysaccharide found in Aspergillus cell walls and is detected in patients with invasive aspergillosis. Free mannan is a polysaccharide found in Candida cell walls and is detected in patients with candidiasis. Therefore, detection of galactomannan and free mannan is specific for diagnosing Aspergillosis and candidiasis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as HIV infection, syphilis, and leptospirosis do not involve the detection of galactomannan or free mannan for diagnosis.

Question 5 of 9

A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be the most effective if it is suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Anaerobic bacteria are sensitive to metronidazole due to its mechanism of action targeting their DNA. Metronidazole is often the drug of choice for treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria. Gentamicin, Oxacillin, and Co-trimoxazole are not effective against anaerobes. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside mostly used for aerobic bacteria, Oxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against gram-positive bacteria, and Co-trimoxazole is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim mainly used for urinary tract infections and some respiratory infections.

Question 6 of 9

Specify the most commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it specifies the commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization: 1.0 atm pressure, 120º C temperature, and 15-20 minutes duration. This combination ensures effective sterilization by providing the necessary heat and pressure for killing microorganisms. Rationale: 1. Pressure of 1.0 atm: Standard atmospheric pressure commonly used in autoclaving. 2. Temperature of 120º C: Optimal temperature for sterilization without causing damage to heat-sensitive materials. 3. Duration of 15-20 minutes: Time required for heat and pressure to penetrate and kill microorganisms effectively. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Incorrect temperature and duration, too high and long, may damage materials. C: Incorrect pressure and temperature, higher pressure and temperature not commonly used. D: Incorrect temperature, too high, can damage materials, and duration is longer than necessary.

Question 7 of 9

A wound culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters indicates a staphylococcal species. The fact that the bacteria are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative further narrow it down to Staphylococcus epidermidis, as this species fits all the given characteristics. - Choice B, Staphylococcus aureus, is coagulase-positive. - Choice C, Streptococcus pyogenes, is a streptococcal species, not staphylococcal. - Choice D, Enterococcus faecalis, is a Gram-positive cocci but is catalase-negative and not typically found in clusters.

Question 8 of 9

In which of the following cases of immune reactions a large lattice is formed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in immune reactions, a large lattice is formed when antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion. This optimal ratio allows for the formation of a strong antigen-antibody complex, leading to the aggregation of immune complexes into large lattice structures. When antibodies are in excess (choice A), there may not be enough antigens to form a stable lattice. Similarly, when antigens are in excess (choice C), there may be insufficient antibodies to form a strong lattice. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal proportion of antigens and antibodies is crucial for the formation of large lattices in immune reactions.

Question 9 of 9

A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

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