Which of the following types of translocation of childhood AML that typically associated with granulocytic sarcoma mass?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following types of translocation of childhood AML that typically associated with granulocytic sarcoma mass?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the case of childhood Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) associated with granulocytic sarcoma mass, the correct translocation type is inv(16). This translocation involves inversion of chromosome 16, leading to the fusion of the CBFB and MYH11 genes. This fusion gene is characteristic of AML with eosinophilia and is associated with a more favorable prognosis. Option B, t(8;21), is commonly associated with AML-M2 subtype but not specifically with granulocytic sarcoma mass. Option C, t(6;9), is associated with AML with poor prognosis and does not typically present with granulocytic sarcoma. Option D, inv(3), is associated with AML and myelodysplastic syndrome, but not usually with granulocytic sarcoma mass. In an educational context, understanding the specific genetic abnormalities associated with different subtypes of AML is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning. Recognizing the significance of inv(16) in the context of granulocytic sarcoma helps healthcare professionals provide targeted and effective care for pediatric patients with this condition.

Question 2 of 5

You are discussing with medical students the role of chemotherapy in malignant germ cell tumors (GCTs); you state that GCTs are sensitive to some types of chemotherapy. Of the following, the MOST effective chemotherapeutic agent in GCTs is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of treating malignant germ cell tumors (GCTs), cisplatin is the most effective chemotherapeutic agent due to its high efficacy against these types of tumors. Cisplatin works by causing DNA damage in rapidly dividing cells, which is a characteristic feature of cancer cells. This mechanism of action makes cisplatin particularly effective in targeting and killing cancer cells in GCTs. Vincristine, although commonly used in pediatric cancers, is not as effective in treating GCTs compared to cisplatin. Vincristine works by disrupting the formation of the mitotic spindle in cancer cells, which is not as specific to GCTs as cisplatin. Cyclophosphamide and methotrexate are also commonly used in pediatric oncology, but they are not the most effective agents for treating GCTs. Cyclophosphamide interferes with DNA replication and cell division, while methotrexate inhibits folic acid metabolism in cancer cells. However, their mechanisms of action are not as targeted towards GCTs as cisplatin. In an educational context, understanding the specific chemotherapeutic agents effective against different types of tumors is crucial for providing optimal care to pediatric patients with cancer. Knowing the mechanisms of action of these agents helps healthcare providers make informed decisions when designing treatment plans tailored to the individual needs of each patient.

Question 3 of 5

The pediatric nurse cares for a patient who has undergone a hydrocele repair. While assessing the patient, the nurse notices that the scrotum is swollen and discolored. These findings are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) normal, and indicate no need for intervention. In a pediatric patient who has undergone a hydrocele repair, swelling and discoloration of the scrotum are expected postoperative findings. This is due to the surgical procedure and the body's natural response to trauma. It is essential for the nurse to recognize these expected postoperative changes to provide appropriate care and prevent unnecessary interventions. Option A) suggesting the need for a cool compress is incorrect because applying cold therapy to the scrotum can potentially cause vasoconstriction and impair blood flow, which is not advisable in this situation. Option B) indicating the presence of hemorrhaging is incorrect as some degree of swelling and discoloration is normal after a hydrocele repair and does not necessarily indicate hemorrhage. Option D) stating the need for a position change is also incorrect as the swelling and discoloration in this case do not require a change in position but rather observation and reassurance to the patient and family. Educationally, understanding the expected postoperative findings following specific pediatric procedures is crucial for providing safe and effective nursing care. This knowledge helps nurses differentiate between normal and abnormal findings, thus guiding appropriate interventions and preventing unnecessary alarm or actions that could potentially harm the patient.

Question 4 of 5

The age at which the infant can achieve early head control with bobbing motion when pulled to sit is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) 2 months. Infants typically achieve early head control with a bobbing motion when pulled to sit around this age. This milestone is part of the normal development of infants as they grow and gain strength in their neck muscles. Option B) 3 months is incorrect because by this age, infants should already have achieved head control and be able to actively lift and control their heads without bobbing when pulled to sit. Option C) 4 months is also incorrect as infants should have well-established head control by this age, and the bobbing motion typically occurs earlier in their development. Option D) 6 months is incorrect as by this age, infants should be able to sit with support and have more advanced head control abilities compared to the bobbing motion seen in younger infants. Understanding these developmental milestones is crucial for nurses taking the NCLEX-RN exam as it helps them assess and monitor infant growth and development. It also enables them to identify any potential delays or issues that may need further evaluation or intervention. By knowing these milestones, nurses can provide appropriate care and support to promote optimal development in pediatric patients.

Question 5 of 5

The first permanent tooth to erupt is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) molar at 6 years. In pediatric dentistry, the first permanent teeth to erupt are the first molars, typically around 6 years of age. These molars are also known as the "6-year molars." This is a critical milestone in a child's dental development as it marks the transition from primary (baby) teeth to permanent teeth. Option A) central incisor at 6 years is incorrect because central incisors are typically the first primary teeth to erupt, not permanent teeth. Option C) premolar lower canine at 6-7 years and D) upper canine at 6-7 years are also incorrect as premolars and canines are typically the second set of permanent teeth to erupt, usually around 10-12 years of age. Understanding the sequence of tooth eruption is important for healthcare professionals, especially pediatric nurses, to provide appropriate anticipatory guidance to parents and caregivers. Knowing the expected timeline of tooth eruption helps in monitoring dental development and identifying any potential issues early on. It also aids in educating parents on proper oral hygiene practices and the importance of regular dental check-ups for their children.

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