ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type A aortic aneurysm. Type A involves the ascending aorta, which is more critical due to proximity to the heart. Immediate surgical intervention is necessary to prevent catastrophic complications like aortic dissection or rupture. Choice B, Type B, usually involves the descending aorta and can often be managed through medical therapy initially. Choice C, Descending aneurysm, may not require immediate surgery unless symptomatic or rapidly expanding. Choice D, Symptomatic aneurysm, could refer to any type and would need further evaluation to determine the urgency of surgical intervention.
Question 2 of 5
While reviewing the head CT scan of a patient following a motor vehicle accident, the AGACNP appreciates a crescent-shaped fluid collection. This most likely represents
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epidural hematoma. A crescent-shaped fluid collection seen on a head CT scan following trauma is indicative of an epidural hematoma, which typically occurs due to an arterial bleed between the dura mater and the skull. This collection appears biconvex due to the restriction of the hematoma by the dura mater and is often associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: A: Acute subdural hematoma typically presents as a crescent-shaped collection but is located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, not between the dura mater and skull as seen in epidural hematomas. C: Acute uncal herniation involves displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe, leading to compression of the brainstem, but it does not manifest as a crescent-shaped fluid collection. D: Acute brainstem compression does not typically present as a distinct crescent-shaped
Question 3 of 5
Melanie is a 31-year-old patient who is being evaluated following a routine urinalysis that revealed microscopic hematuria. She was between menses and has no other identifiable explanation for hematuria. She has no significant medical history and otherwise is without complaint. The AGACNP knows that workup for Melanie should include
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT urogram. This is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie's microscopic hematuria. A CT urogram can provide detailed imaging of the urinary tract to identify any structural abnormalities or causes of hematuria. A urology consultation (choice A) may be necessary after the imaging results. Upper urinary imaging (choice C) is not specific enough and may not provide a comprehensive evaluation. Cystoscopy (choice D) is invasive and typically reserved for cases where lower urinary tract issues are suspected, which is not indicated in Melanie's case without further evaluation.
Question 4 of 5
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.
Question 5 of 5
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a beating heart bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications. Rationale: 1. Off-pump bypass grafting involves performing surgery on a beating heart without the use of a heart-lung machine. 2. The lack of cardiopulmonary bypass during off-pump surgery can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, increasing the risk of neurologic complications. 3. This is why the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson about the slightly higher risk of neurologic complications associated with off-pump bypass. 4. Choice B is incorrect as long-term results actually suggest similar or better patency rates for grafts in off-pump surgery. 5. Choice C is incorrect as the statement about the incidence increasing significantly in the last 10 years is not relevant to the risks of off-pump surgery. 6. Choice D is incorrect as off-pump surgery is not considerably more expensive and the correlation with better long-term outcomes is debatable.