Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type A aortic aneurysm. Type A involves the ascending aorta, which is more critical due to proximity to the heart. Immediate surgical intervention is necessary to prevent catastrophic complications like aortic dissection or rupture. Choice B, Type B, usually involves the descending aorta and can often be managed through medical therapy initially. Choice C, Descending aneurysm, may not require immediate surgery unless symptomatic or rapidly expanding. Choice D, Symptomatic aneurysm, could refer to any type and would need further evaluation to determine the urgency of surgical intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Hyperthermia neonatorum refers to elevated body temperature in newborns. 2. The ed rosy appearance on the face is a common symptom of hyperthermia due to increased blood flow to the skin. 3. Greatly reduced eliminations can be a sign of dehydration associated with hyperthermia. 4. The other choices (hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia) do not align with the symptoms described.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: HELLP syndrome. This must be evaluated as a cause of abdominal pain in a pregnant patient because it is a serious condition characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. These abnormalities can lead to abdominal pain, especially in the right upper quadrant. Placental abruption (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, not specific abdominal pain. Spontaneous hepatic rupture (C) is rare and usually presents with sudden severe abdominal pain. Preterm labor (D) typically presents with regular uterine contractions and lower abdominal discomfort, not specific upper quadrant pain like in HELLP syndrome.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In preeclampsia, epigastric pain is typically associated with liver and/or HELLP syndrome, not hyperacidity. Hyperacidity is more commonly seen in conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not related to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable as they do not provide relevant information to the question.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not associated with hyperacidity but is more likely due to complications such as HELLP syndrome or liver involvement. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not hyperacidity. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia should not be attributed to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (500-1500 gm) because very low birth weight babies typically weigh less than 1500 grams at birth. This range encompasses the common weight range for these babies. Option A (1000-500 gm) is too narrow and excludes babies weighing below 500 grams. Option C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies weighing over 1500 grams. Option D (1500-2000 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies above the typical weight range for very low birth weight babies.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placental insufficiency. Placental insufficiency can lead to decreased oxygen and nutrient supply to the fetus, causing fetal distress during labor. This can result in abnormal fetal heart rate patterns and potential complications. A: Umbilical cord prolapse can also cause fetal distress but is less common than placental insufficiency. B: Uterine rupture is a serious complication but typically presents with maternal symptoms rather than fetal distress. D: Fetal position can impact labor progress but is not typically the primary cause of fetal distress.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine is recommended for pregnant women in malaria endemic areas due to its safety and efficacy in preventing malaria during pregnancy. Step 2: Pregnant women are at higher risk of severe complications from malaria, making prophylaxis crucial. Step 3: The World Health Organization recommends intermittent preventive treatment with Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine for pregnant women in malaria-endemic areas. Step 4: Option A aligns with these guidelines, making it the correct choice. Summary: Option B is incorrect because pregnant women are considered at risk regardless of testing. Option C is incorrect as the timing of administration is not based on quickening. Option D is incorrect as the recommended number of doses may vary based on guidelines.