Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention?

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Midwifery Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following types of aortic aneurysms requires immediate surgical intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type A aortic aneurysm. Type A involves the ascending aorta, which is more critical due to proximity to the heart. Immediate surgical intervention is necessary to prevent catastrophic complications like aortic dissection or rupture. Choice B, Type B, usually involves the descending aorta and can often be managed through medical therapy initially. Choice C, Descending aneurysm, may not require immediate surgery unless symptomatic or rapidly expanding. Choice D, Symptomatic aneurysm, could refer to any type and would need further evaluation to determine the urgency of surgical intervention.

Question 2 of 9

The lie is defined as unstable when it keeps varying after

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this stage, the fetal lie should stabilize into a consistent position, typically longitudinal. Before 36 weeks, fetal movement and position can vary frequently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where fetal lie should have stabilized. At 42 weeks gestation (Choice B), the baby is considered post-term, and fetal lie should have already been established. Similarly, Choices C (38 weeks) and D (40 weeks) fall within the expected range for fetal lie stabilization.

Question 3 of 9

A correct statement about shoulder dystocia is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication. C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously. D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.

Question 4 of 9

With respect to tumor nomenclature, the AGACNP knows that the term carcinoma describes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the term "carcinoma" specifically refers to neoplasms of epithelial origin. Epithelial cells line the surfaces and cavities of the body, so carcinomas originate from these tissues. This term does not describe internal structure (A), loss of growth regulation (B), or metaplastic adaptation (C). Carcinomas are the most common type of cancer and can occur in various organs such as the skin, lungs, breasts, and colon.

Question 5 of 9

The MOST common type of breech presentation is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet

Question 6 of 9

Respiratory distress syndrome is caused by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inadequate surfactant levels. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse. In respiratory distress syndrome, premature infants have insufficient surfactant production, leading to collapsed alveoli and difficulty breathing. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on quality rather than quantity of surfactant. Choice C is incorrect as rib cage underdevelopment is associated with congenital conditions like thoracic dystrophy, not RDS. Choice D is incorrect as gradual alveolar rupture is not a known cause of RDS.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following can lead to placenta praevia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Placenta praevia is more common in women with a history of multiple pregnancies (Grandmultiparity), as repeated stretching of the uterine wall can lead to abnormal placental implantation. Preeclampsia is a separate condition associated with hypertension in pregnancy. Placenta fenestrate and placenta increta are specific placental abnormalities but do not directly cause placenta praevia.

Question 8 of 9

K. W. is a 50-year-old woman who presents for surgical resection of the liver for treatment of metastatic colon cancer. Preoperatively, the surgeon tells her that he is planning to remove 50 to 75 of her liver. The patient is concerned that she will not be able to recover normal liver function with that much removed. The AGACNP counsels her that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because high-volume liver resection is typically performed in individuals with significantly compromised hepatic function to ensure adequate liver remnant. Removing 50 to 75% of the liver in a patient with metastatic colon cancer may be necessary for tumor clearance but carries risks due to potential impairment of liver function postoperatively. Choices B and C provide inaccurate information regarding the timeline and extent of liver regeneration following resection. Choice D is incorrect as removing up to 95% of the liver would lead to severe consequences, such as liver failure. Hence, option A is the most appropriate advice given the patient's situation.

Question 9 of 9

Which one of the following is involved in the management of cord prolapse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placing client on Trendelenburg position. This helps prevent compression of the cord by moving the presenting part off the cord. Placing the client on all fours (choice A) may worsen cord compression. Application of fundal pressure (choice B) is contraindicated as it can further compress the cord. Labor augmentation with oxytocin (choice D) is not indicated in cord prolapse management as it does not address the immediate risk to the fetus. Trendelenburg position is the recommended intervention to alleviate cord compression and improve fetal oxygenation.

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