ATI RN
Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following terms best describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beta one selective. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that selectively targets beta-1 receptors in the heart, reducing heart rate and blood pressure. This specificity minimizes side effects compared to nonselective beta-blockers. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol does not primarily act as an A1 antagonist. Choice C is incorrect as metoprolol is not nonselective and does not block alpha receptors. Choice D is incorrect because metoprolol does not block alpha receptors at all.
Question 2 of 5
VT has a history of subtherapeutic anticoagulation on warfarin (due to poor adherence) until the administration time was changed from evening to morning. The patient also frequently skips meals and takes antacids for reflux. The patient wants to take all medications at the same time of day. Select the statin that is optimal for this patient wanting to take medications in the morning.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atorvastatin (Lipitor). Atorvastatin has a long half-life and can be taken at any time of day, making it suitable for this patient who wants to take all medications in the morning. Lovastatin, Fluvastatin, and Pravastatin have shorter half-lives and are typically recommended to be taken in the evening for optimal efficacy. Therefore, they are not ideal for this patient who wants to consolidate medication administration in the morning.
Question 3 of 5
Which classification of oral hypoglycemic drugs decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biguanide (metformin). Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production by inhibiting gluconeogenesis and increases insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues, which enhances glucose uptake. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Alpha-glycosidase inhibitors delay carbohydrate absorption in the gut. Metformin's dual mechanism of action makes it the correct choice for decreasing hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake.
Question 4 of 5
Metoclopramide (Reglan) carries a black box warning that it can cause tardive dyskinesia with long-term therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (TRUE). Metoclopramide (Reglan) does carry a black box warning due to the risk of tardive dyskinesia with long-term use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face and body and can be irreversible. The warning emphasizes the importance of using metoclopramide for the shortest duration possible to minimize this risk. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because the black box warning for tardive dyskinesia associated with metoclopramide is a well-documented fact supported by clinical evidence and regulatory agencies.
Question 5 of 5
The anti-inflammatory effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is due to their ability to do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that promote inflammation, pain, and fever. By inhibiting their synthesis, NSAIDs reduce inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect as the chemoreceptor trigger zone is not related to the anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs. Choice B is also incorrect as NSAIDs do not reset the hypothalamic 'setpoint'. Choice C is incorrect as the correct answer is D.