ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following synovial joints would be an example of a condylar joint?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A condylar joint is a type of synovial joint that allows movement in two planes, typically flexion/extension and abduction/adduction. The interphalangeal joints of the hand, which are the joints between the phalanges (finger bones), exhibit this type of movement, making them an example of a condylar joint. The hip joint (choice A) is a ball-and-socket joint, the temporomandibular joint (choice C) is a hinge joint, and the intervertebral joint (choice D) is a cartilaginous joint, none of which are examples of condylar joints.
Question 2 of 9
A 36-year-old security officer comes to your clinic, complaining of a painless mass in his scrotum. He found it 3 days ago during a testicular self-examination. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during sexual intercourse. He denies any weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is notable for high blood pressure. He is married and has three healthy children. He denies using illegal drugs, smokes two to three cigars a week, and drinks six to eight alcoholic beverages per week. His mother is in good health and his father had high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. On physical examination he appears anxious but in no pain. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions. His inguinal region has no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum shows a soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. There is no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring. With weight bearing there are no bulges. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What disorder of the scrotum does he most likely have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient most likely has a hydrocele based on the presentation of a painless, soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid surrounding the testicle within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in a painless scrotal swelling. It is common and can occur at any age but is more common in older individuals. A key feature of a hydrocele is that the swelling is not reducible, meaning it cannot be pushed back into the abdomen. In this patient, there was no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring, ruling out a scrotal hernia. Testicular tumors typically present as painless testicular masses but are usually solid rather than cystic. Varicoceles are enlarged veins within the scrotum and have a characteristic "bag of worms" appearance on palpation, which is not described in this case.
Question 3 of 9
Jean has just given birth 6 months ago and is breast-feeding her child. She has not had a period since giving birth. What does this most likely represent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation for 3-6 months in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles. In this case, Jean's lack of menstruation after giving birth and while breastfeeding her child for 6 months likely indicates secondary amenorrhea. This temporary suppression of ovulation and menstruation commonly occurs during breastfeeding due to the high levels of the hormone prolactin, which is responsible for milk production and can inhibit ovulation and menstruation. It is a natural phenomenon known as lactational amenorrhea. Once breastfeeding decreases or stops, menstruation usually resumes within a few months.
Question 4 of 9
The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated by dividing the systolic BP at the dorsalis pedis by the systolic BP at the brachial artery. Which of the following values would be consistent with mild peripheral arterial disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An ABI value less than 0.9 is indicative of mild peripheral arterial disease (PAD). In this case, an ABI of 0.85 falls below the 0.9 threshold, suggesting diminished blood flow to the lower extremities due to PAD. An ABI of 1.1 (Choice A) is actually elevated and not indicative of PAD. Values of 0.65 (Choice C) and 0.35 (Choice D) are significantly lower and would be consistent with moderate to severe PAD, rather than mild.
Question 5 of 9
You are assessing a patient with joint pain and are trying to decide whether it is inflammatory or noninflammatory in nature. Which one of the following symptoms is consistent with an inflammatory process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nodules are a characteristic finding in an inflammatory joint condition such as rheumatoid arthritis. Nodules are small, firm lumps that can develop near the affected joint and are often indicative of an underlying inflammatory process. Tenderness, cool temperature, and ecchymosis can be seen in various musculoskeletal conditions, but nodules specifically point towards an inflammatory process in the joint.
Question 6 of 9
Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant pain. On examination of this area a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A splenic rub is a friction rub heard on auscultation in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, typically in patients with an enlarged spleen. The rough grating noise heard during examination is due to the rubbing together of the inflamed or irritated peritoneal surfaces surrounding the spleen. This is a classic finding in patients with splenomegaly and is often associated with left upper quadrant pain. Bowel noises (borborygmi) are typically heard in the abdomen and are softer, gurgling, or rumbling in nature. Vascular noises are related to blood flow and are typically not associated with such sounds in the abdomen.
Question 7 of 9
Common or concerning symptoms to inquire about in the General Survey and vital signs include all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Changes in weight, fatigue and weakness, fever and chills are common symptoms that can provide valuable information about a person's overall health. These symptoms may indicate underlying medical conditions and merit further investigation. However, a cough, while it can be a symptom of various respiratory or systemic illnesses, is not typically part of the General Survey and vital signs assessment. It is usually addressed in a more focused respiratory assessment.
Question 8 of 9
A young man is concerned about a hard mass he has just noticed in the midline of his palate. On examination, it is indeed hard and in the midline. There are no mucosal abnormalities associated with this lesion. He is experiencing no other symptoms. What will you tell him is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hard mass in the midline of the palate with no associated mucosal abnormalities is most likely a torus palatinus. Torus palatinus is a benign bony growth that often occurs in the midline of the hard palate. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require treatment unless it causes issues with function or hygiene. Leukoplakia is a clinical term used to describe a white patch in the mouth that cannot be scrapped off and is associated with a risk of cancer. Thrush (candidiasis) presents as white, creamy patches in the mouth that can be scrapped off and is caused by a yeast infection. Kaposi's sarcoma presents as red or purple patches or nodules in the mouth and is associated with immunocompromised individuals, like those with HIV/AIDS.
Question 9 of 9
You are evaluating a 40-year-old banker for coronary heart disease risk factors. He has a history of hypertension, which is well-controlled on his current medications. He does not smoke; he does 45 minutes of aerobic exercise five times weekly. You are calculating his 10- year coronary heart disease risk. Which of the following conditions is considered to be a coronary heart disease risk equivalent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is considered a coronary heart disease risk equivalent, meaning it confers a similar risk as having a history of coronary heart disease itself. Individuals with PAD have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke. Therefore, when assessing the 10-year coronary heart disease risk of the 40-year-old banker, having peripheral arterial disease would be a crucial factor to consider in addition to other risk factors like hypertension, exercise habits, and smoking history.