ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pancreas. The pancreas is responsible for producing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. It secretes enzymes like amylase, lipase, and protease to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine. The bicarbonate-rich juice helps neutralize stomach acid. The liver (A) produces bile stored in the gallbladder (B), which aids in fat digestion. The spleen (D) is involved in immune function and blood filtration, not digestive enzyme production.
Question 2 of 9
A patient expresses concerns about the financial implications of their treatment plan. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse's role is to address the holistic needs of the patient, including financial concerns. Providing information about financial assistance programs and resources shows empathy and supports the patient in making informed decisions. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can lead to a breakdown in trust and communication. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the patient's concerns is not addressing the patient's needs. Choice D is incorrect because financial concerns are valid and should be considered in decision-making.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.
Question 4 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan reveals a mismatched defect. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assist with a lumbar epidural steroid injection (LESI) procedure for a patient with chronic back pain. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural accuracy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Confirming the patient's identity ensures the right patient is receiving the intended procedure. 2. Verifying the procedure site using two identifiers prevents errors in site selection. 3. This step aligns with the World Health Organization's Surgical Safety Checklist, reducing the risk of wrong-site procedures. 4. Positioning, sedation, and local anesthesia are important but secondary to ensuring the correct patient and site. Summary: - Option B: Positioning is essential but not the top priority for procedural accuracy. - Option C: Sedation aims to minimize discomfort but does not guarantee procedural accuracy. - Option D: Administering local anesthesia is crucial but not as critical as confirming patient identity and procedure site.
Question 7 of 9
A surgeon accidentally cuts his patient's bladder while attempting to remove his appendix. The surgeon could be guilty of _________
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Malpractice. Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to perform duties according to accepted standards of practice. In this scenario, the surgeon's act of cutting the patient's bladder during an appendectomy could be considered a breach of duty and failure to provide the expected standard of care, which falls under malpractice. Battery (A) involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, but in this case, it was more than just a lack of care. Tort (D) refers to a civil wrong that causes harm, but malpractice is a specific type of tort related to professional negligence.
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Sarah reads the physician's prescription to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergin) intramuscularly after delivery. The rationale for giving this medication is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prevents postpartum hemorrhage. Methylergonovine maleate is a uterotonic medication used to prevent and treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing strong uterine contractions, which help to control bleeding after delivery. It is not used to reduce lochia drainage (choice A), decrease uterine contractions (choice C), or maintain normal blood pressure (choice D). By understanding the pharmacological action of methylergonovine maleate in preventing postpartum hemorrhage, we can confidently select choice B as the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
Ms. Nena is specifically assigned to talk individually with community leaders like the primary grade teacher and the barangay official in charge of the health committee. Which data collection method will the nurse use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Key informant interview. Ms. Nena will use this method to gather in-depth information from knowledgeable individuals within the community. This approach allows her to gain insights and perspectives from key stakeholders, such as the primary grade teacher and barangay official, who have first-hand knowledge and experience. Key informant interviews are particularly useful for obtaining specific details, opinions, and insights that may not be easily accessible through other methods. In contrast, participant observer involves direct participation in community activities, community mapping focuses on spatial data collection, and social survey typically involves collecting data from a larger sample size rather than individual key informants.