Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following statements would be the nurse's response to a famiiy member asking questions about a client's transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately defines a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary interruption in blood flow to the brain. This response demonstrates the nurse's knowledge and ability to provide accurate information to the family member. Option A is incorrect because it deflects the question to the doctor without providing any information. Option B is incorrect because it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Option D is also incorrect because it simply restates the abbreviation without providing any explanation of what TIA actually means.

Question 2 of 5

The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for Parkinson's disease as it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing dopamine levels which are depleted in Parkinson's. Selegiline and Symmetrel provide symptomatic relief but are not as effective as Levodopa. Permax is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects like heart valve damage.

Question 3 of 5

. A client is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone) daily. Which statement best explains why the nurse should instruct the client to take this drug in the morning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because morning administration of prednisone mimics the body's natural corticosteroid secretion pattern. Cortisol, a natural corticosteroid, is typically highest in the morning and decreases throughout the day. By taking prednisone in the morning, the client aligns the drug's peak concentration with the body's natural cortisol levels, optimizing its therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because while taking the drug at the same time daily is important for consistency, it does not specifically address the rationale for morning administration. Choice B is incorrect as the effectiveness of prednisone is not solely dependent on its half-life but also on alignment with the body's natural rhythm. Choice D is also incorrect as prednisone can be taken with food and does not necessarily require an empty stomach for optimal absorption.

Question 4 of 5

A 36-year-old man is scheduled for a unilateral orchiectomy for treatment of testicular cancer. He is withdrawn and does not interact with the nurse. Which action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing answer D as correct: 1. Acknowledges patient's withdrawn behavior 2. Demonstrates empathy and concern 3. Open-ended question allows patient to express feelings 4. Encourages patient to communicate concerns Summary: - Option A assumes a specific problem without patient input - Option B focuses on verbalization, not necessarily addressing underlying concerns - Option C makes assumptions about patient's worries without allowing him to express himself

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is evaluating goals and expected outcomes for a confused patient. Which finding indicates positive progress toward resolving the confusion? NursingStoreRN

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient correctly stating names of family members in the room indicates improved cognitive function and memory recall, which are positive signs of progress in resolving confusion. This demonstrates improved orientation and ability to recognize familiar individuals. Choices A and B indicate safety concerns and risk of falls, which are not related to resolving confusion. Choice C indicates pain management and mobility but does not directly reflect improvement in cognitive status.

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