ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when assisting a patient who has the nursing diagnosis ofAltered Thought Process with Persona! Hygiene Needs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: - Choice D is correct as it offers the patient autonomy and promotes self-care, which is important for maintaining independence and dignity. - By giving the patient a choice between brushing their own teeth or having assistance, it empowers them to make decisions. - Choices A, B, and C are not as appropriate because they do not address the patient's autonomy and may come across as directive or intrusive, which can further exacerbate the altered thought process.
Question 2 of 9
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids that do not contain any solid particles, providing easily digestible nutrients. Jello meets these criteria as it is a clear, gelatin-based dessert that melts into a liquid form at room temperature. Rationale: 1. Jello is a clear liquid that does not contain solid particles, making it suitable for a clear liquid diet. 2. Milk (A) and ice cream (D) are not considered clear liquids as they contain fats and proteins, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. 3. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and fibers, making it unsuitable for a clear liquid diet. Summary: Jello is the correct choice because it meets the criteria of being a clear liquid without solid particles. Milk, orange juice, and ice cream are not appropriate choices for a clear liquid diet due to their composition.
Question 3 of 9
After assessing a patient, a nurse develops a standard formal nursing diagnosis. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To help nurses focus on the scope of medical practice. Developing a standard formal nursing diagnosis helps nurses to identify and focus on the patient's specific health issues within the nursing scope of practice. This enables nurses to provide targeted and effective care interventions. A: To form a language that can be encoded only by nurses - This choice is incorrect because the purpose of a nursing diagnosis is not exclusive to nurses and should be comprehensible to all healthcare professionals caring for the patient. B: To distinguish the nurse’s role from the physician’s role - While this distinction is important, the main purpose of developing a nursing diagnosis is to guide nursing interventions based on the patient's nursing care needs, rather than solely differentiating roles. C: To develop clinical judgment based on other’s intuition - This choice is incorrect as clinical judgment should be based on evidence-based practice and critical thinking, rather than solely relying on intuition or others' opinions.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff causes memory cells to convert to plasma cells?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Re-exposure to a specific antigen. Memory cells are formed after initial exposure to an antigen. Upon re-exposure to the same antigen, memory cells quickly recognize and respond, converting into plasma cells to produce antibodies. This process is known as secondary immune response. Incorrect choices: A: An organ transplant - Organ transplant does not involve the conversion of memory cells to plasma cells. C: Release of lymphokines - Lymphokines are signaling molecules secreted by immune cells but do not directly cause memory cells to convert to plasma cells. D: Initial exposure to an antigen - Initial exposure to an antigen leads to the formation of memory cells, not their conversion to plasma cells upon re-exposure.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse Lina gives discharge instructions to Aling Maria, who is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD because of an upper respiratory tract infection, regarding her diet at home. Which of the following food choices would be appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: high calorie high protein. In COPD exacerbation, the body requires extra calories and protein for energy and muscle strength. High-calorie foods help combat weight loss and fatigue. High-protein foods aid in muscle repair and maintenance. Low-fat low-cholesterol (A) is not ideal as healthy fats are needed. Low-sodium (B) is not necessary unless there is concurrent heart failure. Bland soft diet (C) is not suitable as it does not provide enough calories and protein needed for COPD exacerbation.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is classified as subjective data in a nursing assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because subjective data in a nursing assessment refers to information provided by the patient, such as feelings, perceptions, and symptoms. In this case, the client stating 'I feel nauseated' represents subjective data. This type of information cannot be measured or observed directly. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Heart rate of 90 beats per minute is an objective measurement that can be directly observed. C: Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg is also an objective measurement that can be directly observed. D: Skin appears flushed is an objective observation that can be directly seen.
Question 7 of 9
A client becomes upset when the physician diagnoses diabetes mellitus as the cause of current signs and symptoms. The client tells the nurse, “This must be a mistake. No one in my family has ever had diabetes.” Based on this statement, the nurse suspects the client is using which coping mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. The client's refusal to accept the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, stating that no one in their family has had it, indicates denial as a coping mechanism. Denial is a defense mechanism where individuals refuse to acknowledge unpleasant realities. In this case, the client is rejecting the diagnosis to avoid facing the reality of having a chronic condition. The other choices (B: Anger, C: Withdrawal, D: Resolution) do not fit the client's response in this scenario. Anger involves expressing frustration or hostility, withdrawal is avoiding the situation, and resolution is accepting and dealing with the issue.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse assesses a client shortly after kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 20mL/hour. This is a critical finding after kidney transplant surgery as it indicates potential kidney dysfunction or acute kidney injury. Decreased urine output can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life-threatening. Immediate physician notification is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate danger. Serum potassium level of 4.9mEq/L is slightly elevated but not critical. Temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) is within normal limits for postoperative care. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/L is also normal and does not warrant immediate physician notification.
Question 9 of 9
Which part of the body is supplied by nerves form the thoracic cord?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trunk. The thoracic cord supplies nerves to the trunk region of the body. The thoracic spinal nerves innervate the chest, abdomen, and back. They control sensation and movement in these areas. The head (A) is mainly supplied by cranial nerves, the pelvis (B) is innervated by lumbar and sacral nerves, and the coccyx (D) is supplied by the sacral nerves. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the anatomical distribution of the thoracic spinal nerves.