ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when assisting a patient who has the nursing diagnosis ofAltered Thought Process with Persona! Hygiene Needs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it offers the patient autonomy by providing a choice between brushing their teeth independently or having assistance. This empowers the patient to make decisions regarding their personal hygiene, promoting independence and self-esteem. Choice A does not offer a choice or empower the patient. Choice B focuses solely on the location of the toothbrush and does not address the patient's needs. Choice C does not provide the patient with a sense of control over their hygiene routine. By contrast, choice D acknowledges the patient's needs, offers a choice, and encourages independence.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff statements justifies the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before the intracranial surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures. Step 2: Anticonvulsants are often given before surgery to reduce the risk of seizures during and after the procedure. Step 3: In the context of intracranial surgery, controlling seizures is crucial to prevent complications like increased intracranial pressure. Step 4: Therefore, administering phenytoin before surgery helps in reducing the risk of seizures before and after the procedure. Summary: - Option B (avoid intraoperative complications) is too broad and doesn't directly relate to the use of phenytoin. - Option C (reduce cerebral edema) is not the primary indication for phenytoin in this scenario. - Option D (prevent postoperative vomiting) is not a common reason for administering phenytoin before intracranial surgery.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Reyea has expressive aphasia. As a part of a long range planning. The nurse should ;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Positive reinforcement helps enhance communication skills in individuals with expressive aphasia. 2. Providing positive feedback when Mr. Reyea uses words correctly encourages him to continue trying to communicate. 3. It boosts his confidence and motivation, leading to improved verbal communication over time. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Waiting indefinitely for Mr. Reyea to verbally state his needs may lead to frustration and hinder effective communication. C. Suggesting permanent help at home assumes Mr. Reyea's condition cannot improve, which is not necessarily true for expressive aphasia. D. Helping the family accept Mr. Reyea's communication challenges does not actively support his communication improvement and may limit his progress.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has chronic respiratory acidosis related to long-standing lung disease. Which of the following problems is the cause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoventilation. In chronic respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot effectively eliminate carbon dioxide, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood, causing acidosis. Hypoventilation results in decreased removal of CO2, exacerbating the acidosis. A: Hyperventilation would lead to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. B: Loss of acid by kidneys would result in metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis. D: Loss of base by kidneys would lead to metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis. In summary, the main issue in chronic respiratory acidosis is inadequate elimination of CO2 due to hypoventilation, leading to acidosis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is admitted who has had severe vomiting for 24 hours. She states that she is exhausted and weak. The results of an admitting ECG show flat T waves and ST segment depression. Choose the most likely potassium (K ) value for this patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2.0mEq/L. Severe vomiting can lead to hypokalemia, characterized by flat T waves and ST segment depression on ECG. This is due to decreased potassium levels affecting cardiac repolarization. A potassium level of 2.0mEq/L is dangerously low and consistent with the ECG findings in this scenario. Choices A, C, and D have potassium levels that are not reflective of severe hypokalemia, therefore they are incorrect. Option A (4.0mEq/L) is within the normal range, option C (8.0mEq/L) is elevated, and option D (2.6mEq/L) is higher than the correct value of 2.0mEq/L.
Question 6 of 9
The patient database reveals that a patient has decreased oral intake, decreased oxygen saturation when ambulating, reports of shortness of breath when getting out of bed, and a productive cough. Which elements will the nurse identify as defining characteristics for the diagnostic label of Activity intolerance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Activity intolerance is defined as insufficient physiological or psychological energy to endure or complete required or desired daily activities. Step 2: In the scenario, the patient experiences shortness of breath when getting out of bed, indicating decreased ability to tolerate physical activity. Step 3: This shortness of breath is a defining characteristic of activity intolerance as it reflects the patient's limited ability to perform activities of daily living. Step 4: Other symptoms like decreased oral intake, decreased oxygen saturation, and productive cough may be related to other health issues but are not specific to activity intolerance. Step 5: Therefore, choice B is the correct answer as it includes a key defining characteristic of activity intolerance, while other choices do not directly relate to the concept.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following nursing activities is an example of evaluation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because checking a client's blood pressure after administering medication assesses the effectiveness of the intervention. Evaluation involves determining if the desired outcomes were achieved. Administering oxygen therapy (B) is an implementation task. Developing a plan of care (C) is part of the assessment and planning phase. Teaching about dietary options (D) is part of the implementation phase. In conclusion, only option A involves assessing the outcome of an intervention, making it the correct choice for evaluation.
Question 8 of 9
Which white blood cells are involved in releasing histamine during an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basophils. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that release histamine during allergic reactions. They contain granules filled with histamine, which is released when they encounter an allergen. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils do not release histamine during allergic reactions. Monocytes are involved in immune response and inflammation, eosinophils are responsible for combating parasitic infections, and neutrophils are primarily involved in fighting bacterial infections.
Question 9 of 9
A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect, especially at higher doses. This is a known adverse reaction to Ketamine administration. Monitoring for muscle rigidity and spasms is important to ensure the safety of the client during and after surgery. Incorrect choices: B: Hiccups - Hiccups are not a common side effect of Ketamine administration. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine is not known to cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine typically does not cause respiratory depression, which is more commonly associated with other anesthetics like opioids. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the known side effects of Ketamine.