ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements should Nurse Cora consider as TRUE with anorexia nervosa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nurse Cora should consider statement C as TRUE with anorexia nervosa. Cultures that portray thinness as the ideal standard of beauty can increase the risk of developing anorexia nervosa. This is because individuals may internalize these societal norms and feel pressure to attain the thin ideal, leading to disordered eating behaviors.
Question 2 of 9
Patient Hydee asks how she could Distinguish between true and false labor? Which is NOT included among the factors in which the nurse should base her answer from?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The engagement of the fetus refers to the baby's head moving down into the mother's pelvis in preparation for birth. This factor is not typically used to distinguish between true and false labor because it is a sign of progress in labor rather than a defining characteristic of true labor. In contrast, the factors that are commonly used to differentiate between true and false labor include contractions (e.g., regularity, intensity, duration), cervical changes observed through vaginal examination (e.g., effacement and dilation), and monitoring vital signs.
Question 3 of 9
The CI is expected to set the atmosphere by welcoming everyone and by _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a professional setting like a classroom or a meeting, it is important for the CI (chief instructor) to set the atmosphere by welcoming everyone and discussing the objectives of the ward class. By discussing the objectives, the CI can provide a clear direction for the session and ensure that everyone is on the same page in terms of what needs to be accomplished. This not only helps focus the participants but also creates a sense of purpose and organization, setting a positive tone for the rest of the interaction. Showing a picture of the breast or giving an anecdote about an old man may not be appropriate or relevant in this context. Going ahead with the first part of the lecture without any welcoming or setting the atmosphere may make the participants feel rushed or disconnected from the session's purpose.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient and the patient is harmed. The physician who ordered the medication did not read the documentation that the patient was allergic to the drug. Which statement is true regarding liability for the administration of the wrong medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a situation where a nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient resulting in harm, both the nurse and the physician can be held liable for their respective roles in the error. The nurse is responsible for administering the incorrect medication, which is a violation of their duty to provide safe and appropriate care. However, the physician is also responsible because they failed to review the patient's documentation indicating the allergy to the medication before ordering it. As healthcare professionals, both the nurse and the physician have a duty of care to ensure patient safety, and in this case, both individuals failed in their responsibilities, leading to the harm caused to the patient. Therefore, both the nurse and the physician can be held accountable for the error.
Question 5 of 9
A postpartum client with a history of gestational diabetes expresses concern about managing blood sugar levels while breastfeeding. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Educating the client about the importance of balanced nutrition and frequent monitoring of blood glucose levels should be prioritized to address the client's concerns about managing blood sugar levels while breastfeeding. This intervention helps empower the client to make informed choices about her diet and monitor her blood sugar levels effectively. By focusing on balanced nutrition and regular blood glucose monitoring, the client can better manage her blood sugar levels during the postpartum period and while breastfeeding, reducing the risk of complications associated with gestational diabetes. It also promotes overall health and well-being for both the mother and the baby.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation of a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, above the clavicle, along with the cytology showing clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm is most indicative of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors derived from the parathyroid gland that can produce excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hyperparathyroidism. The characteristic histology of parathyroid adenomas includes chief cells with abundant granular cytoplasm.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with petechiae, purpura, and mucosal bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia, elevated serum creatinine, and schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare but serious condition characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological abnormalities, fever, and renal dysfunction. The classic pentad of symptoms includes fever, neurologic changes, renal impairment, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. The presence of petechiae, purpura, and mucosal bleeding along with thrombocytopenia, elevated serum creatinine, and schistocytes on peripheral blood smear are consistent with TTP. In TTP, there is usually a deficiency of ADAMTS13 (a von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease) leading to excessive platelet adhesion, aggregation, and microthrombi formation within small blood vessels. Treatment typically
Question 8 of 9
What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR is 30 compressions to 2 breaths. This means that after every 30 chest compressions, two rescue breaths should be given. This ratio helps in maintaining oxygen circulation in the body while also ensuring that the heart is being effectively pumped to circulate blood. The emphasis on chest compressions is critical in maintaining blood flow to vital organs during cardiac arrest, while the rescue breaths help in providing oxygen to the patient's lungs. This ratio is recommended by organizations like the American Heart Association for performing high-quality adult CPR.
Question 9 of 9
Take home medications given to Patient Lily includes digitalis therapy which was given to patient since she was pregnant. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate with patient's drug therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digitalis therapy, commonly prescribed for heart conditions, is known for its narrow therapeutic range and potential for toxicity. In the case of Patient Lily, who has been on digitalis therapy since she was pregnant, the nurse would anticipate the continuation of the same dosage to maintain the therapeutic effects and reduce the risks of toxicity. It is essential to monitor the patient's digitalis levels regularly and adjust the dosage if necessary based on the patient's response and any changes in their clinical status. Switching to a more potent drug, changing the medication, or adding a diuretic would not be appropriate without further assessment and consultation with the healthcare provider managing Lily's digitalis therapy.