Which of the following statements regarding the antigenic shift is NOT true?

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

medical microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following statements regarding the antigenic shift is NOT true?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigenic shift is a major change in the influenza virus where genetic material from different influenza viruses mix to create a new subtype. This is a large-scale change that results in a novel virus with a different antigenic composition. Option A and B are incorrect because antigenic shift does involve the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza A viruses, and it does occur when animal or avian influenza viruses of type A directly pass into the human population. Option C is incorrect because antigenic shift is not related to the recirculation of a previously circulating influenza strain.

Question 2 of 9

A man is being treated for chronic pneumonia for a long time. Microscopy of sputum smears stained using Ziehl-Nielsen method reveals red bacilli 0.25x4 microns in size, located separately or sometimes in small clusters. What disease can be suspected?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary tuberculosis. The presence of red bacilli stained with Ziehl-Nielsen method indicates acid-fast bacteria, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis. The size and appearance of the bacilli described match those of M. tuberculosis. Chronic pneumonia, along with the specific staining pattern, strongly suggests tuberculosis as the likely diagnosis. Explanation for other choices: A: Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, which would not show red bacilli on Ziehl-Nielsen staining. B: Pulmonary actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces species, not acid-fast bacteria like M. tuberculosis. C: Pulmonary candidiasis is caused by Candida species, which are fungi and do not appear as red bacilli on staining.

Question 3 of 9

Sexually transmitted infection, Lymphogranuloma venerum, is caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chlamydia trachomatis. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2, and L3. These serovars infect the lymphatic system leading to swelling and inflammation. Choice A, Chlamydia pneumoniae, is associated with respiratory infections, not LGV. Choice B, Chlamydia psittaci, causes psittacosis in birds and humans. Choice C, Mycoplasma genitalium, is a separate STI but is not the causative agent for LGV. The key to the correct answer is understanding the specific pathogen responsible for LGV based on its clinical presentation and mode of transmission.

Question 4 of 9

The function of the bacterial endospore is to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: ensure survival under harsh conditions. Bacterial endospores are dormant, resistant structures that form under adverse conditions to protect the bacterial DNA and allow the bacterium to survive extreme environments. This function is crucial for the bacterium's long-term survival. Choice A is incorrect as endospores do not directly produce exotoxins. Choice B is incorrect as endospores do not store nutrients but rather protect the bacterium's genetic material. Choice D is incorrect as endospores do not enhance motility but rather enable survival during unfavorable conditions.

Question 5 of 9

Bacterial spores are resistant to harsh conditions due to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the presence of calcium dipicolinate in bacterial spores helps protect their DNA from damage under harsh conditions. Calcium dipicolinate acts as a stabilizer, preserving the spore structure. Choice A is incorrect as bacterial spores have a tough protein coat, not a lipid-rich membrane. Choice C is incorrect as bacterial spores have very low metabolic activity. Choice D is incorrect as bacterial spores have low water content to prevent damage during harsh conditions.

Question 6 of 9

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The patient presented with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. The patient's symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness are classic signs of meningococcal meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is known to cause outbreaks in crowded settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice B) is a common cause of bacterial meningitis but typically appears as Gram-positive cocci. Haemophilus influenzae (Choice C) can also cause meningitis but is more commonly seen in unvaccinated children. Klebsiella pneumoniae (Choice D) is a Gram-negative bacterium but is not a typical causative agent of meningitis.

Question 7 of 9

The cell organelles found only in algae and plant cells are:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: chloroplasts. Algae and plant cells have chloroplasts, which are responsible for photosynthesis. This organelle contains chlorophyll, enabling these cells to convert sunlight into energy. Mitochondria (B) are found in all eukaryotic cells, not specific to algae and plants. Vacuoles (C) are present in plant cells but also in other eukaryotic cells. Vesicles (D) are membrane-bound sacs found in all types of cells for transport and storage purposes, not unique to algae and plants. Therefore, A is the correct answer.

Question 8 of 9

AST determines the antibiotic panels; Gram (+) panel includes:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxacillin. In AST for Gram-positive bacteria, the antibiotic panel typically includes oxacillin to determine if the bacterium is susceptible or resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. Oxacillin is commonly used to test for methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus. Tetracycline (B), Tobramycin (C), and Amikacin (D) are not typically included in the Gram-positive antibiotic panel. Tetracycline is more commonly used for Gram-negative bacteria, while Tobramycin and Amikacin are aminoglycosides usually tested in Gram-negative bacterial infections. Therefore, they are not appropriate choices for the Gram-positive antibiotic panel.

Question 9 of 9

A consumptive patient has an open pulmonary form of disease. Choose what sputum staining should be selected for finding out the tubercle (Koch's) bacillus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Method of Ziel-Neelsen. This method uses a special stain (carbol fuchsin) to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis. The staining procedure involves heating the slide to help penetrate the mycolic acid layer of the bacteria, making them resistant to decolorization by acid-alcohol. The red stained acid-fast bacilli stand out against the blue counterstain. This method is specific for identifying tubercle bacilli in sputum samples. Choice B: Method of Romanowsky-Giemsa is used for staining blood smears and is not suitable for detecting acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Choice C: Method of Gram is used for staining bacteria based on their cell wall composition and is not effective for identifying acid-fast bacilli like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Choice D: Method of Neisser is not a specific staining method for acid-fast bacilli and is not suitable

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days