ATI RN
Multiple Choice Questions on Gastrointestinal Disorders Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements regarding the adaptive immune response is false?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is indeed required for the activation of T helper cells by a foreign antigen. This is because T helper cells recognize antigens presented by MHC molecules on antigen-presenting cells. Without MHC presentation, T helper cells cannot be activated. Choice A is incorrect because MHC molecules do display both self and non-self antigens, which is crucial for the immune system to distinguish between harmful invaders and healthy cells. Choice C is incorrect because activated effector T helper cells can indeed activate both T and B lymphocytes/cells, playing a key role in coordinating the adaptive immune response. Choice D is incorrect because T cells do not use 'chemical warfare'; instead, they directly attack infected cells, while B cells produce antibodies that target specific antigens. In summary, choice B is false because the MHC is necessary for T helper cell activation, while choices A, C, and D are true statements regarding the adaptive immune response.
Question 2 of 5
You must rearrange the room assignment for several clients. Which two clients would be best suited to put in the same room?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the best-suited clients to be placed in the same room are the 53-year-old female with pain related to alcohol-associated pancreatitis (Option C) and the 35-year-old female with copious, intractable diarrhea and vomiting (Option A). The rationale behind choosing these two clients to be in the same room is based on their similar gastrointestinal symptoms. Both clients are experiencing acute gastrointestinal distress, which may require frequent monitoring, specialized care, and potential isolation to prevent the spread of infections. Placing them together would allow healthcare providers to focus on similar care interventions, such as fluid management, symptom control, and infection control measures. The other options are not ideal to be placed with the 53-year-old female with pancreatitis: - Option B: The 43-year-old female post-operative cholecystectomy may need a quiet environment for recovery, which could be disrupted by the acutely ill patients. - Option D: The 62-year-old female with colon cancer receiving chemotherapy and radiation may have a compromised immune system, making her more susceptible to infections that the other clients might carry. From an educational standpoint, understanding the rationale behind room assignments based on patients' conditions is crucial in healthcare settings. It ensures appropriate care, infection control, and patient safety. The rationale for room assignments should consider not only the medical conditions of the patients but also their specific care needs and potential interactions that may impact their health outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following tubes is surgically inserted into the abdomen but goes to the small intestine?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Jejunostomy tube. A jejunostomy tube is surgically inserted into the abdomen but goes to the small intestine, specifically the jejunum. This tube is used for enteral feeding and bypasses the stomach to deliver nutrients directly into the small intestine. Option A) Orogastric tube is incorrect because it is inserted through the mouth and ends in the stomach, not the small intestine. Option B) Nasogastric tube is inserted through the nose and ends in the stomach, not the small intestine. Option D) Gastrostomy tube is surgically inserted into the stomach, not the small intestine. Educationally, understanding the different types of feeding tubes is crucial for healthcare professionals working with patients who have gastrointestinal disorders and require enteral nutrition. Knowing the correct placement of each tube ensures proper administration of medications and nutrients, preventing complications and promoting patient well-being.
Question 4 of 5
Compounds containing aspirin are discontinued at least how many weeks before ileostomy surgery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of gastrointestinal disorders and ileostomy surgery, it is crucial for patients to discontinue compounds containing aspirin to prevent excessive bleeding during and after the surgery. The correct answer, option B) 2 weeks, is the most appropriate timeframe for stopping aspirin-containing compounds because it allows enough time for the medication to be cleared from the body, reducing the risk of bleeding complications during the surgery. Option A) 1 week is too short of a timeframe to ensure that aspirin has been adequately metabolized and eliminated from the system, increasing the likelihood of surgical complications. Option C) 3 weeks and option D) 4 weeks are longer periods than necessary, potentially causing undue discomfort or adverse effects on the patient who may benefit from aspirin for other medical conditions. In an educational context, understanding the timing of discontinuing aspirin-containing compounds before ileostomy surgery is essential for healthcare providers, nurses, and patients themselves. This knowledge ensures optimal patient safety and outcomes during the surgical procedure, highlighting the importance of medication management in the preoperative period for individuals with gastrointestinal issues.
Question 5 of 5
Checking for the return of the gag reflex and monitoring for LUQ pain, nausea and vomiting are necessary nursing actions after which diagnostic procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). When a patient undergoes an EGD, it involves the insertion of a flexible scope through the mouth to visualize the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. After this procedure, monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to ensure the patient's safety and ability to protect their airway. LUQ (Left Upper Quadrant) pain, nausea, and vomiting are important signs to watch for as they could indicate complications post-procedure. Option A) ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) is not the correct answer because although it involves the gastrointestinal system, it focuses on the bile ducts and pancreas, not the upper GI tract. Option B) Barium swallow is incorrect as this procedure involves swallowing a contrast material to visualize the upper GI tract, but it is not an invasive procedure like an EGD that would require monitoring for specific post-procedural complications. Option C) Colonoscopy is also incorrect as it examines the large intestine, not the upper GI tract that is visualized during an EGD. The symptoms mentioned are not typically associated with a colonoscopy. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind post-procedural monitoring is essential for nursing practice to ensure patient safety and early detection of complications. By recognizing the specific signs and symptoms related to different diagnostic procedures, nurses can provide better care and interventions for their patients undergoing these tests.