Which of the following statements refers to gallium nitrate:

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Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following statements refers to gallium nitrate:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option D: All of the above. Gallium nitrate is a medication used for the management of hypercalcemia of malignancy. It works by inhibiting bone resorption, thereby helping to reduce elevated calcium levels in the blood. Additionally, gallium nitrate can be nephrotoxic, meaning it can harm the kidneys. To mitigate this risk, patients should be well-hydrated before starting the infusion to promote good renal output and reduce the likelihood of kidney damage. Option A is incorrect because gallium nitrate is not FDA-approved for the management of hypercalcemia of malignancy. Option B is incorrect because gallium nitrate does not act by inhibiting bone resorption; rather, it inhibits osteoclastic activity. Option C is incorrect as it fails to encompass the full scope of considerations related to gallium nitrate administration. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, and potential adverse effects of cardiovascular drugs like gallium nitrate is crucial for nursing students and healthcare professionals. It enables them to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy, monitor patients for efficacy and side effects, and provide appropriate patient education. This comprehensive knowledge is vital for safe and effective pharmacological management in clinical practice.

Question 2 of 5

All of the following drugs demonstrate a fungicidal effect, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question about cardiovascular drugs pharmacology, the correct answer is C) Ketoconazole. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that exhibits a fungistatic effect, meaning it inhibits the growth of fungi but does not outright kill them. Amphotericin B (option B) is known for its fungicidal effect, which means it kills fungi. Terbinafine (option A) and Miconazole (option D) also have fungicidal properties, hence they are not the correct answers to this question. Educationally, understanding the distinction between fungistatic and fungicidal effects of antifungal drugs is crucial in pharmacology. This knowledge is vital for healthcare professionals to select the most appropriate treatment for fungal infections based on the desired outcome of inhibiting growth or killing the fungi. Understanding these nuances can ultimately improve patient outcomes and prevent the development of drug resistance.

Question 3 of 5

All of the following antimalarial drugs influence blood schizonts, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question on antimalarial drugs influencing blood schizonts, the correct answer is C) Primaquine. Primaquine is primarily used for preventing relapse of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, but it does not target blood schizonts. A) Mefloquine is an antimalarial drug that acts on blood schizonts, making it an incorrect option. B) Chloroquine is also effective against blood schizonts and is commonly used for treating malaria. D) Quinidine is not typically used as an antimalarial drug but rather for treating certain cardiac arrhythmias. Understanding the mechanisms of action of antimalarial drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when managing patients with malaria. Knowing which drugs target specific stages of the malaria parasite's life cycle helps in choosing the most appropriate treatment regimen for patients. This knowledge is vital for passing exams like the NCLEX, where pharmacology questions frequently appear.

Question 4 of 5

Action mechanism of alkylating agents is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the action mechanism of alkylating agents is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when dealing with cardiovascular drugs. The correct answer is B) Producing carbonium ions altering DNA structure. Alkylating agents work by transferring alkyl groups to nucleophilic agents such as DNA, leading to DNA damage and interference with DNA replication and transcription. This mechanism makes them effective in treating cancer by inhibiting cell division. Option A) Producing carbonium ions altering protein structure is incorrect because alkylating agents primarily target DNA, not proteins. Option C) Structural antagonism against purine and pyrimidine is incorrect as this describes antimetabolites like methotrexate, not alkylating agents. Option D) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis is incorrect because alkylating agents primarily affect DNA structure, leading to disruption of DNA replication and cell death. Understanding the mechanism of action of alkylating agents is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about drug therapy, especially in conditions like cancer where these agents are commonly used. This knowledge helps in predicting potential side effects, drug interactions, and overall treatment efficacy, ensuring safe and effective patient care.

Question 5 of 5

A 55-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled essential hypertension had recently added atenolol to her therapeutic regimen. Which of the following was most likely a primary mechanism that mediated the antihypertensive effect of atenolol in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Inhibition of epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors. By doing so, it inhibits the effects of catecholamines such as epinephrine, which normally act to increase heart rate and contractility, leading to elevated blood pressure. By blocking these effects, atenolol reduces heart rate and cardiac output, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Option A) Dilation of large veins is incorrect because atenolol primarily acts on the heart and not on blood vessels. It does not directly cause vasodilation. Option C) Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used for hypertensive emergencies, but it works through a different mechanism involving direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle, not through beta-blockade like atenolol. Option D) Fenoldopam is a selective dopamine receptor agonist that causes arterial vasodilation but does not inhibit epinephrine release like atenolol. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of cardiovascular drugs like atenolol is crucial for nurses and other healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients with hypertension. Knowing how each drug works allows for appropriate selection, monitoring, and patient education regarding potential side effects and interactions.

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