ATI RN
Peter Attia Drugs Cardiovascular Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements refers to cholecalciferol:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cholecalciferol, also known as vitamin D3, exerts its effects through genomic effects (regulating gene expression) and cytoplasmic effects (regulating calcium transport). This is crucial for its role in calcium homeostasis and bone health. A is incorrect because cholecalciferol is typically administered orally and does not require frequent monitoring of calcium and phosphorus serum levels. B is incorrect because cholecalciferol promotes bone formation by enhancing osteoblast activity, not inhibiting osteoclasts. C is incorrect because cholecalciferol actually helps increase serum calcium levels by enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines and promoting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, rather than lowering them.
Question 2 of 5
All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is not an aminoglycoside; it belongs to the lincosamide class. Gentamicin, Streptomycin, and Neomycin are aminoglycosides. Aminoglycosides are characterized by their mechanism of action involving binding to the bacterial ribosome, leading to inhibition of protein synthesis. Clindamycin, on the other hand, acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis at a different site. Therefore, Clindamycin does not belong to the aminoglycoside group.
Question 3 of 5
Mechanism of Rifampin action is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase. Rifampin selectively inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, specifically the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, leading to the suppression of RNA synthesis. This disrupts bacterial protein production, ultimately causing bacterial cell death. Incorrect answers: A: Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis - Rifampin does not target mycolic acid synthesis, which is specific to mycobacteria. C: Inhibition of topoisomerase II - Rifampin does not target topoisomerase II, which is involved in DNA replication and repair. D: Inhibition of cAMP synthesis - Rifampin does not inhibit cAMP synthesis, which is a signaling molecule involved in various cellular processes.
Question 4 of 5
Tick the drug for cestodosis (tapeworm invasion) treatment:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is B: Praziquantel. Praziquantel is the drug of choice for treating cestodosis due to its high efficacy against tapeworms. It works by causing paralysis in the worms, leading to their detachment from the intestinal wall and subsequent expulsion from the body. Piperazine (A) is used for roundworm infections, not cestodosis. Pyrantel (C) is effective against intestinal nematode infections, not tapeworms. Ivermectin (D) is mainly used for treating parasitic infections caused by roundworms and mites, but it is not the first-line treatment for cestodosis.
Question 5 of 5
A 27-year-old woman with a history of high altitude sickness was placed on prophylactic treatment with a diuretic drug prior to going on a hiking trip in the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following urine electrolyte profiles is most consistent with this drug treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The diuretic drug causes increased urine output, leading to electrolyte imbalances characterized by low levels of potassium (hypoKalemia) and low levels of magnesium (hypoMagnesemia). This pattern is consistent with profile P. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests high potassium levels which would not be expected with diuretic use. Choice C is incorrect as it indicates high sodium levels which would typically be decreased with diuretic therapy. Choice D is incorrect as it shows normal electrolyte levels which would not be expected with diuretic-induced electrolyte imbalances.