Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders. A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children. In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.

Question 2 of 5

Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritable bowel syndrome. Mrs. Maroldo's history of recurrent left lower quadrant pain that usually resolves with antibiotics suggests a chronic condition rather than an acute one like diverticulitis, appendicitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. Her lack of nausea, vomiting, and severe symptoms, along with the presence of diarrhea and no bowel movements, align more with irritable bowel syndrome. Additionally, her vital signs are not significantly elevated, ruling out acute conditions like appendicitis. Discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant is common in irritable bowel syndrome due to visceral hypersensitivity. Therefore, based on her chronic symptoms, lack of severe signs, and typical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is irritable bowel syndrome.

Question 3 of 5

Use of bed cradle in the management of leg thrombosis is meant to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The use of bed cradle in leg thrombosis management is to promote venous drainage. Elevating the legs on a bed cradle helps improve blood flow back to the heart, reducing swelling and preventing blood clots. Keeping the legs straight (A) is not the main purpose. Preventing embolism (B) is important but not the direct purpose of a bed cradle. Controlling body temperature (C) is unrelated to the use of a bed cradle for leg thrombosis.

Question 4 of 5

Diamorphic anaemia results due to deficiency of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron and folic acid. Diamorphic anemia is characterized by the presence of both microcytic and macrocytic red blood cells, which can be caused by a deficiency in both iron and folic acid. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, while folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Thiamine deficiency (Choice A) primarily affects the nervous system and does not directly cause diamorphic anemia. Liver enzymes deficiency (Choice D) does not directly lead to diamorphic anemia. Folic acid and thiamine deficiency (Choice C) can cause individual types of anemia but not diamorphic anemia.

Question 5 of 5

Classical caesarean section is indicated for

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image