Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders. A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children. In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine is recommended for pregnant women in malaria endemic areas due to its safety and efficacy in preventing malaria during pregnancy. Step 2: Pregnant women are at higher risk of severe complications from malaria, making prophylaxis crucial. Step 3: The World Health Organization recommends intermittent preventive treatment with Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine for pregnant women in malaria-endemic areas. Step 4: Option A aligns with these guidelines, making it the correct choice. Summary: Option B is incorrect because pregnant women are considered at risk regardless of testing. Option C is incorrect as the timing of administration is not based on quickening. Option D is incorrect as the recommended number of doses may vary based on guidelines.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fistula formation. Fistula formation is the most severe type of urinary tract trauma as it involves an abnormal connection between the urinary tract and another organ or the skin. This condition can lead to severe complications such as recurrent infections, incontinence, and even sepsis. Retention of urine (A) is a symptom of urinary tract obstruction, not necessarily the most severe type of trauma. Stress incontinence (B) is a common condition but is not indicative of severe trauma. Scalding sensation (C) can be a symptom of a urinary tract infection but does not necessarily indicate severe trauma like fistula formation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Placenta praevia is more common in women with a history of multiple pregnancies (Grandmultiparity), as repeated stretching of the uterine wall can lead to abnormal placental implantation. Preeclampsia is a separate condition associated with hypertension in pregnancy. Placenta fenestrate and placenta increta are specific placental abnormalities but do not directly cause placenta praevia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, complete rupture of the uterus. This is an obstetric emergency due to the risk of severe bleeding and potential harm to both the mother and the fetus. A ruptured uterus can lead to life-threatening complications such as hemorrhage and shock. In contrast, options A, B, and C are not considered obstetric emergencies. Aftercoming head in breech, complete cephalic presentation, and complete breech presentation are normal variations in labor that do not typically require immediate intervention like a ruptured uterus does.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epidural hematoma. A crescent-shaped fluid collection seen on a head CT scan following trauma is indicative of an epidural hematoma, which typically occurs due to an arterial bleed between the dura mater and the skull. This collection appears biconvex due to the restriction of the hematoma by the dura mater and is often associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: A: Acute subdural hematoma typically presents as a crescent-shaped collection but is located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, not between the dura mater and skull as seen in epidural hematomas. C: Acute uncal herniation involves displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe, leading to compression of the brainstem, but it does not manifest as a crescent-shaped fluid collection. D: Acute brainstem compression does not typically present as a distinct crescent-shaped

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all three choices are key indicators for cesarean section during labor. Fetal distress indicates the baby is not tolerating labor well. Failure to progress may lead to complications for the mother or baby. Breech presentation increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery. Therefore, all three indicators warrant consideration for a cesarean section to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.