Which of the following statements is TRUE of Quality Improvement?

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following statements is TRUE of Quality Improvement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Quality Improvement is a systematic approach that aims to continually enhance the quality of services or products within an organization. The statement that is true of Quality Improvement is that it focuses on continually improving every process in the organization (Option B). This includes processes related to patient care, organizational structure, and all aspects of operations. Quality Improvement involves identifying areas for improvement, implementing changes, monitoring the effectiveness of those changes, and then making further refinements. By focusing on every process within the organization, Quality Improvement helps drive positive outcomes and ensures sustainable improvements in quality and performance.

Question 2 of 9

During CPR, which of the following actions should be performed immediately after activating the emergency response system?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: After activating the emergency response system, the immediate priority in CPR is to begin chest compressions to support blood circulation. High-quality chest compressions are crucial in providing oxygen to vital organs, especially the brain, during cardiac arrest. Starting chest compressions promptly can improve the chances of survival for the person in need of CPR. Checking for breathing, performing abdominal thrusts, or assessing pulse should only be done after initiating chest compressions in the CPR sequence.

Question 3 of 9

In providing health teaching to the famil, Nurse Emma would include in her teachings the etioology of Scabies which is __________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Scabies is caused by an infestation of the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. This parasitic mite burrows into the upper layer of the skin, where it lays eggs and causes intense itching and skin irritation. The transmission of scabies usually occurs through close and prolonged skin-to-skin contact with an infested person. Unlike viruses, bacteria, and fungi, which are microorganisms that can also cause skin infections, scabies specifically refers to an infestation by a parasitic mite.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip suggest an infection caused by Cryptosporidium parvum. Cryptosporidium is a protozoan parasite that is commonly transmitted through contaminated water sources. Laboratory tests detecting oocysts in the stool sample are characteristic of Cryptosporidium infection.

Question 5 of 9

A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the treatment of GERD should be closely monitored for the development of osteoporosis. PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoporotic fractures, particularly in long-term users. This risk is thought to be due to decreased calcium absorption as stomach acidity is reduced by PPIs, leading to potential alterations in bone metabolism and density. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to assess bone health, educate patients on calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and consider other risk factors for osteoporosis in individuals taking PPIs long-term. While hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and Clostridium difficile infection may be seen as adverse effects with other medications or conditions, osteoporosis is the adverse effect most closely monitored in patients taking PPIs for GERD.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following energy conserving strategies should NOT be done by COPD patients?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) patients often struggle with breathing difficulties due to their conditions, hence it is important for them to conserve their energy as much as possible. Standing while performing activities like shaving or combing hair can be physically demanding for COPD patients as it requires more energy and can lead to increased shortness of breath. It is recommended for COPD patients to sit down or assume a supported position (like the tripod position with elbows supported on a table) to reduce the energy expended and minimize the strain on their respiratory system. Standing in front of the mirror while performing grooming activities is a task that can be easily modified to a seated position, thus conserving energy and reducing the risk of exacerbating breathing difficulties for COPD patients.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, and halitosis. Nasal endoscopy reveals a foul-smelling, yellowish discharge draining from the middle meatus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, halitosis, and foul-smelling, yellowish discharge from the middle meatus is highly suggestive of chronic rhinosinusitis. The presence of nasal polyps further supports this diagnosis. Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps is characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, leading to symptoms such as nasal congestion, postnasal drip, cough, and a reduced sense of smell. The yellowish discharge and foul odor are typical findings in cases of chronic rhinosinusitis with secondary bacterial infection. Nasal endoscopy may reveal edematous nasal mucosa and polyps obstructing the middle meatus, contributing to the symptoms described by the patient. Management typically involves a combination of medical therapies such as intranasal corticosteroids, saline irrigation, and antibiotics, and in some cases, surgical intervention

Question 8 of 9

A patient admitted to the ICU develops septic shock with refractory hypotension despite fluid resuscitation. Which intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to improve the patient's hemodynamic status?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with septic shock and refractory hypotension despite fluid resuscitation, the healthcare team should prioritize administering vasopressor medications to increase systemic vascular resistance. Vasopressors such as norepinephrine or vasopressin can be used to support blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs by constricting blood vessels and improving blood flow. By increasing systemic vascular resistance, vasopressors help to counteract the excessive vasodilation seen in septic shock and improve hemodynamic stability. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly in septic shock to prevent organ dysfunction and failure. Other interventions, such as fluid removal through continuous renal replacement therapy, assessing cardiac function with echocardiogram, or optimizing oxygen delivery through a transfusion of packed red blood cells, may be considered based on specific patient factors but do not address the primary issue of inadequate perf

Question 9 of 9

A patient is prescribed an anticoagulant for the prevention of venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which laboratory parameter should the nurse monitor closely during anticoagulant therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the International Normalized Ratio (INR) closely during anticoagulant therapy for the prevention of VTE. The INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, such as warfarin. Maintaining the INR within the target therapeutic range is crucial to prevent both excessive bleeding due to over-anticoagulation and clotting events due to under-anticoagulation. Close monitoring of the INR helps healthcare providers adjust the anticoagulant dosage as needed to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes and minimize risks. Platelet count, serum sodium levels, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important laboratory parameters to monitor for other medical conditions but are not specific to anticoagulant therapy.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days