ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements is NOT true about influenza viruses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because there is specific prophylaxis available for influenza, such as the flu vaccine. Choice A is incorrect as influenza viruses are not spherical, they are typically pleomorphic. Choice B is incorrect because hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are indeed antigenically variable, contributing to the need for annual flu vaccines. Choice C is incorrect as the susceptibility of the population to influenza viruses can vary depending on factors such as immunity and vaccination status.
Question 2 of 9
A woman delivered a dead child with multiple developmental defects. What protozoan disease might have caused the intrauterine death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy, leading to congenital toxoplasmosis. This infection can result in stillbirth, multiple developmental defects, and intrauterine death. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are caused by different parasites and do not typically lead to intrauterine death or developmental defects in the fetus.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with severe abdominal pain and vomiting had a blood culture that revealed Gram-negative rods producing gas. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. In this case, the presence of Gram-negative rods producing gas in the blood culture indicates a likelihood of Salmonella infection, as it is a common cause of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and gas production. Salmonella enteritidis is a known pathogen that can cause gastroenteritis and systemic infections. Escherichia coli (choice A) can also cause similar symptoms, but it is less likely to produce gas in blood culture. Clostridium perfringens (choice C) typically causes food poisoning with rapid onset and less likely to be isolated from blood cultures. Campylobacter jejuni (choice D) is associated with gastroenteritis but is less likely to cause systemic infections with gas-producing Gram-negative rods in blood culture.
Question 4 of 9
A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in the joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes and spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypersensitivity of delayed type. The symptoms described occur 5-10 days after exposure to the antigen, consistent with a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves T cells and is characterized by cell-mediated immune response, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms of allergic reactions. Immunocomplex reactions (choice A) involve antigen-antibody complexes depositing in tissues, immediate hypersensitivity reactions (choice B) involve IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, and cytotoxic reactions (choice C) involve antibodies targeting specific cells for destruction.
Question 5 of 9
Langerhans cells, which play a role in defense against microbes, are located in the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: epidermis. Langerhans cells are a type of immune cell found in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. They play a crucial role in the defense against microbes by capturing and presenting antigens to activate the immune system. The dermis (B), hypodermis (C), and subcutaneous layer (D) are located deeper in the skin and do not contain Langerhans cells. Therefore, the epidermis is the correct location for these immune cells to carry out their defensive functions.
Question 6 of 9
Sterilization is a process that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sterilization is the process of completely destroying all microorganisms, including resistant forms like spores, ensuring no viable organisms remain. This is crucial for ensuring complete elimination of potential pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because sterilization should eliminate all microorganisms, including spores. Choice C is incorrect as it describes disinfection, not sterilization. Choice D is incorrect because sterilization aims to eradicate all microorganisms, not leave any viable ones behind.
Question 7 of 9
Laboratory diagnosis of rabies includes all of these except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Looking for Ernst-Babes granules. Laboratory diagnosis of rabies typically involves looking for Negri bodies in the brain tissue, intracerebrally infecting mice for virus isolation, and using immunofluorescence method to detect viral antigens. Ernst-Babes granules are not associated with rabies virus and are not used in the diagnosis of rabies. Therefore, choice C is incorrect.
Question 8 of 9
For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.
Question 9 of 9
Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.