Which of the following statements is NOT true about influenza viruses?

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microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following statements is NOT true about influenza viruses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because there is specific prophylaxis available for influenza, such as the flu vaccine. Choice A is incorrect as influenza viruses are not spherical, they are typically pleomorphic. Choice B is incorrect because hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are indeed antigenically variable, contributing to the need for annual flu vaccines. Choice C is incorrect as the susceptibility of the population to influenza viruses can vary depending on factors such as immunity and vaccination status.

Question 2 of 9

Langerhans cells, which play a role in defense against microbes, are located in the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: epidermis. Langerhans cells are a type of immune cell found in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. They play a crucial role in the defense against microbes by capturing and presenting antigens to activate the immune system. The dermis (B), hypodermis (C), and subcutaneous layer (D) are located deeper in the skin and do not contain Langerhans cells. Therefore, the epidermis is the correct location for these immune cells to carry out their defensive functions.

Question 3 of 9

Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.

Question 4 of 9

For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.

Question 5 of 9

During sanitary and bacteriological examination of air in a drugstore it was revealed that the air had high concentration of sanitary meaningful microorganisms. What microorganisms are these?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus. These microorganisms are commonly found in high concentrations during sanitary and bacteriological examination of air in a drugstore due to their prevalence in the environment. Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus are known to be significant pathogens that can cause various infections in humans. Rationale: 1. Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus are common pathogens found in the environment and can easily contaminate air in enclosed spaces like a drugstore. 2. Both microorganisms are considered to be of sanitary significance as they can cause infections and are indicators of poor hygiene and sanitation. 3. Diphtheritic and tuberculous bacilli (Choice B) are not typically associated with air contamination in a drugstore setting. 4. Colibacilli and blue pus bacilli (Choice C) are more commonly found in fecal

Question 6 of 9

A 25-year-old patient was delivered to an infectious diseases unit on the 3rd day of illness with complaints of headache, pain in lumbar spine and gastrocnemius muscles, high fever, chill. Objectively: condition of moderate severity. Scleras are icteric. Pharynx is hyperemic. Tongue is dry with dry brown coating. Abdomen is distended. Liver is enlarged by 2 cm. Spleen is not enlarged. Palpation of muscles, especially gastrocnemius muscles, is painful. Urine is dark in color. Stool is normal in color. The most likely diagnosis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis presents with headache, fever, muscle pain, jaundice, and kidney involvement. The patient's symptoms of headache, lumbar and muscle pain, high fever, icteric scleras, and dark urine are classic for Leptospirosis. The enlarged liver could be due to liver involvement in the disease. The absence of splenic enlargement and normal stool color rule out malaria. Infectious mononucleosis typically presents with sore throat and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case. Viral hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but the presence of muscle pain and dark urine is more indicative of Leptospirosis. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and clinical findings, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.

Question 7 of 9

Examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei and four pairs of flagella. The organisms had also two axostyles between the nuclei and a ventral adhesive disc. What protozoan representative was found in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, two axostyles, and a ventral adhesive disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is commonly found in the duodenum and causes giardiasis. Step 3: Lamblia is the correct answer as it specifically matches all the described characteristics. Summary: B, Toxoplasma, is incorrect as it does not match the described features. C, Leishmania, does not have the specific characteristics mentioned. D, Intestinal trichomonad, does not match the detailed descriptions given.

Question 8 of 9

Laboratory diagnosis of rabies includes all of these except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Looking for Ernst-Babes granules. Laboratory diagnosis of rabies typically involves looking for Negri bodies in the brain tissue, intracerebrally infecting mice for virus isolation, and using immunofluorescence method to detect viral antigens. Ernst-Babes granules are not associated with rabies virus and are not used in the diagnosis of rabies. Therefore, choice C is incorrect.

Question 9 of 9

Which bacterium is known for producing an exotoxin that causes severe diarrhea?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. 2. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not diarrhea. 3. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. 4. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not typical diarrhea. Summary: A: Incorrect, causes tetanus. B: Incorrect, causes botulism. C: Correct, produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. D: Incorrect, causes dysentery.

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