ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to Mycobacterium tuberculosis and/or the disease it caused?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is the correct answer because antibodies formed against Mycobacterium tuberculosis are not protective. They do not efficiently clear the infection due to the bacterium's ability to evade the immune response by residing intracellularly in macrophages. Antibodies play a minimal role in controlling tuberculosis compared to cell-mediated immunity. Summary: A is incorrect because Mycobacterium tuberculosis does contain mycolic acid in its cell wall. B is incorrect because the pathogen can indeed live intracellularly in macrophages. D is incorrect as C is the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
Examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei and four pairs of flagella. The organisms had also two axostyles between the nuclei and a ventral adhesive disc. What protozoan representative was found in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, two axostyles, and a ventral adhesive disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is commonly found in the duodenum and causes giardiasis. Step 3: Lamblia is the correct answer as it specifically matches all the described characteristics. Summary: B, Toxoplasma, is incorrect as it does not match the described features. C, Leishmania, does not have the specific characteristics mentioned. D, Intestinal trichomonad, does not match the detailed descriptions given.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.
Question 4 of 9
Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case. C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with severe abdominal pain and vomiting had a blood culture that revealed Gram-negative rods producing gas. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. In this case, the presence of Gram-negative rods producing gas in the blood culture indicates a likelihood of Salmonella infection, as it is a common cause of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and gas production. Salmonella enteritidis is a known pathogen that can cause gastroenteritis and systemic infections. Escherichia coli (choice A) can also cause similar symptoms, but it is less likely to produce gas in blood culture. Clostridium perfringens (choice C) typically causes food poisoning with rapid onset and less likely to be isolated from blood cultures. Campylobacter jejuni (choice D) is associated with gastroenteritis but is less likely to cause systemic infections with gas-producing Gram-negative rods in blood culture.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to Mycobacterium tuberculosis and/or the disease it caused?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is the correct answer because antibodies formed against Mycobacterium tuberculosis are not protective. They do not efficiently clear the infection due to the bacterium's ability to evade the immune response by residing intracellularly in macrophages. Antibodies play a minimal role in controlling tuberculosis compared to cell-mediated immunity. Summary: A is incorrect because Mycobacterium tuberculosis does contain mycolic acid in its cell wall. B is incorrect because the pathogen can indeed live intracellularly in macrophages. D is incorrect as C is the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.
Question 8 of 9
Drugs needed for diseases with fewer than 200,000 patients, and that fail to receive attention for development because of cost and need, are called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: orphan drugs. Orphan drugs are medications developed to treat rare diseases affecting fewer than 200,000 patients. These diseases often lack attention from pharmaceutical companies due to the high cost and limited market potential. Orphan drugs receive special incentives and regulatory support to encourage their development. A: Secondary drugs do not specifically refer to medications for rare diseases. B: Minor drugs is not a recognized term in the context of rare disease medications. D: Specialty drugs typically refer to high-cost medications used to treat complex or chronic conditions, but not necessarily rare diseases.
Question 9 of 9
Rotaviruses:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the NSP4 nonstructural protein of rotaviruses indeed acts in a toxic-like manner by disrupting calcium homeostasis, leading to diarrhea. Choice B is incorrect as rotaviruses can cause significant disease in infants, but not typically in adults. Choice C is incorrect as rotaviruses are resistant to stomach acid. Choice D is incorrect as rotaviruses cause a net secretion of water and loss of ions, contributing to diarrhea.