Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding B cells?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: B cells develop in the bone marrow, not the thymus. Firstly, hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow give rise to B cells. They undergo maturation and selection processes in the bone marrow, not in the thymus. Therefore, choice B is false. On the other hand, choices A, C, and D are correct. A is true because B cells with high affinity to self-antigens undergo apoptosis to prevent autoimmunity. C is true since B cells synthesize antibodies which can be displayed on their surface as B cell receptors. D is true because B cells can undergo class switching to produce different types of antibodies based on the immune response requirements.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacillus anthracoides. 1. The patient's symptoms align with cutaneous anthrax, caused by Bacillus anthracis. 2. Presence of immobile streptobacilli able of capsulation matches the characteristics of Bacillus anthracis. 3. Symptoms such as black crust, peripheral vesicular rash, and non-painful edema are classic for cutaneous anthrax. 4. Choice A: Bacillus antracis is a misspelling, not a valid option. 5. Choice B: Staphylococcus aureus does not match the symptoms described in the scenario. 6. Choice D: Bacillus megaterium is not associated with cutaneous anthrax.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with Balantidiasis, caused by the parasite Balantidium coli. The presence of ciliated oval organisms in the feces is characteristic of this disease. Ulcers in the large intestine are common in Balantidiasis due to tissue invasion by the parasite. Headache, fever, and abdominal pain are typical symptoms. Other choices can be ruled out: B) Amebiasis presents with similar symptoms but usually involves the liver. C) Toxoplasmosis typically presents with lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms. D) Lambliasis usually causes watery diarrhea without blood or mucus. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest streptococci. 2. Catalase-negative indicates it's not staphylococci. 3. Beta-hemolytic points towards Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes). Summary: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae is not beta-hemolytic. C. Enterococcus faecalis is not typically chains. D. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the causative agent of tuberculosis, as it specifically infects the lungs and can spread to other parts of the body. Mycobacterium leprae (Choice A) causes leprosy, not tuberculosis. Bacillus anthracis (Choice C) causes anthrax, not tuberculosis. Staphylococcus aureus (Choice D) is a common bacterium known for causing skin infections, not tuberculosis. Therefore, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the correct answer for the causative agent of tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thermophiles. Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high temperatures, typically between 45-80 degrees Celsius. They have adapted to extreme heat environments and have enzymes that function optimally at high temperatures. Mesophiles (A) grow best at moderate temperatures, Psychrophiles (B) thrive in cold temperatures, and Halophiles (D) thrive in high salt concentrations. Therefore, only Thermophiles are specifically adapted to high temperatures, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an anticodon is a nucleotide triplet in a tRNA molecule that pairs with a complementary codon on mRNA during translation. Step 1: Anticodons are found in tRNA, not in DNA or mRNA. Step 2: Anticodons specifically bind to codons on mRNA to ensure correct amino acid incorporation into the growing polypeptide chain, making option D the most accurate choice. Option A is incorrect as replication does not involve anticodons. Option B is incorrect because codons, not anticodons, are found on mRNA molecules. Option C is incorrect as it describes a codon on DNA, not an anticodon on tRNA.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Isoniazid inhibits pyridoxal phosphate synthesis, which is the active form of vitamin B6. Pyridoxal phosphate is essential for various enzymatic reactions, including neurotransmitter synthesis and myelin formation. Therefore, isoniazid-induced pyridoxal phosphate deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms like polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions. A: Disruption of cell membrane synthesis - This is not the mechanism of isoniazid side-effects. B: Inhibition of protein synthesis - Isoniazid does not directly inhibit protein synthesis. C: Inhibition of RNA-synthesis - Isoniazid does not inhibit RNA synthesis; it affects vitamin B6 metabolism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pericarditis. Pericarditis refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. This condition can cause chest pain, fever, and other symptoms related to the heart. Peritonitis (A) is inflammation of the peritoneum, not the pericardium. Myocardial infarction (C) is a heart attack caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries, not inflammation of the pericardium. Anemia (D) is a condition characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin, not related to inflammation of the pericardium.