Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillin than gram-positive bacteria

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as an extra barrier. This outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides and porins, which restrict the entry of antibiotics like penicillin. The outer membrane acts as an additional layer of protection, making it harder for penicillin to penetrate and reach its target, the peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the specific mechanism of resistance seen in gram-negative bacteria. Choice A focuses on transpeptidase enzyme quantity, which is not the primary reason for penicillin resistance. Choice B refers to β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space, which are actually enzymes that degrade penicillin and contribute to resistance, but this is not unique to gram-negative bacteria. Choice D mentions a thicker cell wall, which is a characteristic of gram-positive bacteria, not gram-negative bacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hantavirus. Hantavirus is considered a newly emerging disease because it was first identified in the late 20th century. It is transmitted to humans through rodents and can lead to severe respiratory illness. Malaria, Tuberculosis, and Chlamydia are not considered newly emerging diseases as they have been known for centuries and continue to be prevalent worldwide. Therefore, based on the timeline of discovery and emergence, Hantavirus is the most recent infectious disease among the options provided.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism, which can vary and is not a constant characteristic. It can be measured using LD50, which is the lethal dose that kills 50% of the test population. Therefore, all the statements in options A, B, and C are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of virulence.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: rRNA. Bacterial ribosomes consist mainly of ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which plays a crucial role in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and proteins, with rRNA being the major component. rRNA serves as the structural and catalytic component of the ribosome, aiding in the binding of mRNA and tRNA during translation. Carbohydrates (A) and lipids (B) are not primary components of ribosomes, and DNA (C) is not found in ribosomes as they are involved in storing genetic information, not in protein synthesis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are not typical symptoms of botulism. Botulism is characterized by descending, flaccid paralysis (choice A), dry mouth, difficulty swallowing, and speaking (choice B), and blurred vision, diplopia (choice D). These symptoms result from the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are more commonly associated with infections or other conditions, not botulism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Staphylococcus aureus can develop resistance to penicillin over time due to the production of beta-lactamase enzymes. This resistance mechanism makes it no longer susceptible to penicillin. The other choices are correct: B) S. aureus can produce beta hemolysis, C) it produces various toxins like hemolysins, leucocidins, and enterotoxins, and D) it shows a positive catalase reaction due to the presence of catalase enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.