Which of the following statements correctly describes the pathophysiology of Cushing's disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Correct. Cushing's disease is caused by a pituitary adenoma secreting excess ACTH, stimulating adrenal cortex to produce excess cortisol. B: Incorrect. Cushing's disease does not result from excess cortisol secretion by the pituitary adenoma. C: Incorrect. Cushing's disease is not caused by an adrenal adenoma secreting excess ACTH. D: Incorrect. Cushing's disease is not caused by an adrenal adenoma secreting excess cortisol. Summary: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the pathophysiology of Cushing's disease, where a pituitary adenoma secretes excess ACTH leading to increased cortisol production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misinterpret the primary source of hormone overproduction in Cushing's disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because dipsogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by a defect or damage to the hypothalamus, not the pituitary gland or pituitary stalk. The hypothalamus regulates thirst and water intake, so damage to this area can lead to excessive thirst and dilute urine output characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Choices A and D incorrectly attribute the cause to the pituitary gland or pituitary stalk, which are not directly involved in regulating thirst. Choice B is incorrect as it mentions malfunction of the hunger mechanism, which is not relevant to dipsogenic diabetes insipidus. Thus, choice C is the most accurate definition based on the pathophysiology of the condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sertoli cells are responsible for producing and secreting Androgen binding globulin (ABG). They play a crucial role in supporting spermatogenesis by providing structural and nutritional support to developing sperm cells. ABG helps in the transport of testosterone and other androgens within the seminiferous tubules, aiding in the regulation of spermatogenesis. Testosterone is primarily produced by Leydig cells in the testes, not by Sertoli cells, making option A incorrect. Option B, Oestrogen, is mainly synthesized in the ovaries, while Sertoli cells do not produce GnRH (option D), which is secreted by the hypothalamus. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as Sertoli cells are primarily responsible for producing and secreting Androgen binding globulin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for choice C (FSH) being correct: 1. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells in the testes. 2. Sertoli cells produce androgen binding globulin (ABG). 3. ABG binds to testosterone, regulating its availability. 4. FSH indirectly influences testosterone levels via ABG production. Summary of incorrect choices: A. LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone, not Sertoli cells. B. GnRH regulates the release of FSH and LH but does not directly stimulate ABG production. D. Oxytocin is not involved in the regulation of Sertoli cells or ABG production in males.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Toxic thyroid adenoma is characterized by a benign tumor in the thyroid gland. Step 2: This tumor produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, particularly T3 and T4. Step 3: The tumor arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Step 4: Choice D accurately describes a toxic thyroid adenoma as a benign tumor producing excessive thyroid hormones from follicular cells. Summary: Choice A is incorrect because it describes autoimmune thyroid disease, not a toxic adenoma. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a malignant tumor, not a benign one. Choice C is incorrect as it describes thyroiditis, not a toxic adenoma.