Which of the following statements concerning vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) functions are true:

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Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following statements concerning vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) functions are true:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement, Option C, is true because vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) does serve as a coenzyme for various metabolic reactions, such as the conversion of methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA, DNA synthesis in conjunction with folic acid, and transmethylation for methionine synthesis. This is important for maintaining overall cellular function and health. Option A is incorrect because it describes the functions of vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate) rather than vitamin B12. Vitamin B6 is indeed essential for transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids in enzyme systems, but it is not the active form of vitamin B12. Option B is incorrect because it describes the function of pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) as an essential constituent of coenzyme A, not vitamin B12. Option D is incorrect because it describes the role of vitamin E as an antioxidant protecting cell membrane lipids, not vitamin B12. In an educational context, understanding the specific functions of different vitamins is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pharmacologists. Knowing the correct roles of each vitamin helps in prescribing appropriate treatments and understanding the underlying mechanisms of drug actions. This knowledge is vital for success in pharmacology exams like the NCLEX, where precision and accuracy in drug interactions and mechanisms are key.

Question 2 of 5

Action of vitamin D3 is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of cardiovascular drugs pharmacology, understanding the action of vitamin D3 is crucial due to its role in calcium and phosphate metabolism. The correct answer, option D, encompasses all the actions of vitamin D3 in regulating these minerals. Option A is incorrect because it only mentions the absorption aspect and doesn't cover all the actions of vitamin D3. Option B is also incorrect as it focuses on excretion, which is not a primary function of vitamin D3 in relation to calcium and phosphate. Option C is partially correct but lacks the comprehensive nature of option D. From an educational perspective, knowing that vitamin D3 plays a key role in maintaining calcium and phosphate balance is essential for understanding its importance in bone health and overall metabolic functions. By choosing option D, students demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of vitamin D3's actions, which is fundamental in pharmacology, especially when considering its impact on cardiovascular health and drug interactions.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following statements refers to gallium nitrate:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option D: All of the above. Gallium nitrate is a medication used for the management of hypercalcemia of malignancy. It works by inhibiting bone resorption, thereby helping to reduce elevated calcium levels in the blood. Additionally, gallium nitrate can be nephrotoxic, meaning it can harm the kidneys. To mitigate this risk, patients should be well-hydrated before starting the infusion to promote good renal output and reduce the likelihood of kidney damage. Option A is incorrect because gallium nitrate is not FDA-approved for the management of hypercalcemia of malignancy. Option B is incorrect because gallium nitrate does not act by inhibiting bone resorption; rather, it inhibits osteoclastic activity. Option C is incorrect as it fails to encompass the full scope of considerations related to gallium nitrate administration. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, and potential adverse effects of cardiovascular drugs like gallium nitrate is crucial for nursing students and healthcare professionals. It enables them to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy, monitor patients for efficacy and side effects, and provide appropriate patient education. This comprehensive knowledge is vital for safe and effective pharmacological management in clinical practice.

Question 4 of 5

General principles of anti-infective therapy are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the general principles of anti-infective therapy is crucial for safe and effective patient care. The correct answer, D) All of the above, encompasses the key components of anti-infective therapy. Here's why: A) Clinical judgment of microbiological factors: Before initiating anti-infective therapy, it is essential to assess clinical factors such as the site of infection, patient's immune status, and potential pathogens involved. This helps in selecting the most appropriate antimicrobial agent. B) Definitive identification of a bacterial infection and the microorganism’s susceptibility: Proper identification of the infectious agent and its susceptibility to specific antibiotics is vital to ensure targeted therapy, minimize resistance, and improve patient outcomes. C) Optimal route of administration, dose, dosing frequency, and duration of treatment: Understanding the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of antimicrobial agents is crucial in determining the appropriate dosing regimen to achieve therapeutic levels at the site of infection while minimizing side effects and resistance development. Educational Context: Teaching students these principles helps them develop critical thinking skills when managing infections. It emphasizes the importance of evidence-based practice, patient safety, and antimicrobial stewardship. Understanding these principles prepares students to make informed decisions in clinical practice, such as selecting the right drug, dose, and duration of therapy based on individual patient factors and microbiological data. Incorrect options: - Option A is incorrect because clinical judgment alone may not be sufficient to guide anti-infective therapy without considering microbiological factors. - Option B is incorrect as definitive identification of the infectious agent and susceptibility testing are essential but not the only factors to consider in anti-infective therapy. - Option C is incorrect as dosing considerations are crucial but must be based on microbiological factors and clinical judgment for optimal therapy. In conclusion, a comprehensive understanding of the general principles of anti-infective therapy is essential for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients with infections.

Question 5 of 5

All of the following drugs demonstrate a fungicidal effect, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question about cardiovascular drugs pharmacology, the correct answer is C) Ketoconazole. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that exhibits a fungistatic effect, meaning it inhibits the growth of fungi but does not outright kill them. Amphotericin B (option B) is known for its fungicidal effect, which means it kills fungi. Terbinafine (option A) and Miconazole (option D) also have fungicidal properties, hence they are not the correct answers to this question. Educationally, understanding the distinction between fungistatic and fungicidal effects of antifungal drugs is crucial in pharmacology. This knowledge is vital for healthcare professionals to select the most appropriate treatment for fungal infections based on the desired outcome of inhibiting growth or killing the fungi. Understanding these nuances can ultimately improve patient outcomes and prevent the development of drug resistance.

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