ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of dendritic cells in the immune response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dendritic cells play a critical role in initiating adaptive immune responses by capturing antigens from pathogens, migrating to lymphoid organs, and presenting these antigens to naïve T cells. This activation of naïve T cells by dendritic cells is essential for the adaptive immune system to generate specific immune responses against pathogens. Dendritic cells act as professional antigen-presenting cells, which are specialized to capture, process, and present antigens to T cells, thereby facilitating the activation of T cells and the coordination of adaptive immune responses, such as the production of specific antibodies and the generation of memory T cells.
Question 2 of 9
The elderly should be affforded health protection by
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Regular health check-ups play a crucial role in the prevention, early detection, and management of health issues, especially for the elderly. By ensuring that the elderly receive regular health check-ups, healthcare providers can monitor their health status, detect any potential health problems early on, and provide appropriate medical interventions. This proactive approach can help protect the elderly from developing serious health issues or complications. Additionally, regular health check-ups can also promote overall health and well-being, allowing healthcare professionals to address any existing health concerns and provide necessary treatments or recommendations to maintain the elderly's health and quality of life.
Question 3 of 9
The last and necessary part of the activity is _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The last and necessary part of any activity should involve an evaluation process. By evaluating the activity, the organizers can gather feedback on what worked well and what areas need improvement. This feedback is crucial for enhancing future activities that are similar in nature. It allows for reflections on the effectiveness of the activity, identifies strengths and weaknesses, and helps in making necessary adjustments for better outcomes in the future. Overall, evaluation ensures continuous improvement and development in organizing successful activities.
Question 4 of 9
What is the primary purpose of a cervical collar in the management of trauma patients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of a cervical collar in the management of trauma patients is to immobilize the cervical spine. This is crucial in cases of suspected cervical spine injury to prevent any further damage and to maintain spinal stability. By providing support and restricting movement in the cervical spine region, a cervical collar helps prevent potential spinal cord injuries and associated neurological deficits. It is essential to immobilize the cervical spine until a thorough evaluation can be carried out to determine the extent of injury, as any movement of the spine during this period can worsen the damage.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, hyperpigmentation of the skin, and salt craving. Laboratory tests reveal low serum sodium levels and elevated serum potassium levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Addison's disease is a rare endocrine disorder characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to a deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone production. The symptoms of Addison's disease include fatigue, weakness, hyperpigmentation of the skin (due to elevated levels of ACTH stimulating melanocytes), and salt craving (due to aldosterone deficiency). Low serum sodium levels and elevated serum potassium levels are also common laboratory findings in Addison's disease, as aldosterone plays a key role in maintaining electrolyte balance. Patients with Addison's disease are at risk of developing an adrenal crisis, which can be life-threatening if not promptly recognized and treated with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture is scheduled for surgical intervention. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate for this type of fracture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a displaced femoral neck fracture, the most appropriate surgical procedure is usually an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF). This procedure involves making an incision to reposition the fractured bone fragments and securing them in place with screws or other fixation devices. ORIF allows for better alignment of the fracture, which is crucial for proper healing and minimizing the risk of complications like avascular necrosis or nonunion. Closed reduction and internal fixation (CRIF) may not be as effective for displaced femoral neck fractures due to the complex nature of the fracture and the need for precise realignment and stability provided by an open surgical approach. External fixation is less commonly used for femoral neck fractures and is typically reserved for certain specific cases where internal fixation is not feasible. Closed reduction alone is unlikely to provide adequate stability for a displaced femoral neck fracture and is generally not recommended as the primary surgical treatment for this type of injury.
Question 7 of 9
A 35-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and acne. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common hormonal disorder in women of reproductive age. The classic symptoms of PCOS include irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism (excess hair growth in a male pattern), and acne. Women with PCOS often have enlarged ovaries with multiple small cysts. Other common features include obesity, insulin resistance, and infertility. Endometriosis is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, leading to symptoms such as pelvic pain and infertility. Ovarian cancer usually presents with nonspecific symptoms and is less likely in a young woman with these specific symptoms. Uterine fibroids are benign tumors that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pressure but are less likely to be associated with hirsutism and acne.
Question 8 of 9
Despite the reaction of the patient, which of the ethical principle that the nurse is responsible of providing all patients with caring attention and information?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Advocacy is the ethical principle that the nurse is responsible for providing all patients with caring attention and information, despite the reaction of the patient. Advocacy involves supporting and speaking up for the patient's best interests, ensuring they receive the care and information they need to make informed decisions about their health and well-being. Providing caring attention and information is essential in advocating for the patient's autonomy and well-being, even if the patient may not initially appreciate or react positively to these efforts.
Question 9 of 9
Which is the BEST strategy that Nurse should employ to give feedback on patients evaluation of health services?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conducting a staff meeting is the best strategy for Nurse Nena to give feedback on patients' evaluation of health services. This option allows for direct communication and interaction with the team, ensuring that feedback is effectively conveyed, discussed, and understood by all members. Staff meetings provide a platform for open dialogue, clarification of any concerns, and collaborative problem-solving. It also promotes team cohesion and shared accountability in improving health services based on patients' feedback. This approach encourages active participation and engagement from all team members, fostering a more effective and comprehensive response to the evaluations received.