ATI RN
health assessment exam 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements about mental health assessment is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because mental status is indeed inferred through assessment of an individual's behaviors. Mental health assessment involves observing and evaluating a person's thoughts, emotions, behaviors, and overall mental functioning to determine their mental status. This includes assessing speech, mood, cognition, and perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because: A: Mental health assessment does not solely focus on diagnosing specific psychiatric disorders; it is a broader evaluation of an individual's mental well-being. B: Mental disorders can result from a variety of factors beyond everyday life stressors, such as genetic predisposition or traumatic experiences. D: Mental health assessment is more complex than assessing physical characteristics and involves subjective interpretation of behaviors rather than direct observation like physical assessments.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the concept of ethnicity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because ethnicity is defined by shared heritage, culture, language, or religion. This definition encompasses the key components that make up an individual's ethnic identity. Choice A is incorrect because while political forces may influence ethnicity, it does not define the concept itself. Choice C is incorrect as ethnicity is not necessarily related to belief in a higher power. Choice D is incorrect as ethnicity is not solely a learned behavior but also includes innate aspects like heritage.
Question 3 of 9
When a nurse is performing a neurological assessment, which of the following is most important to assess first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Patient's level of consciousness. Assessing the patient's level of consciousness is crucial in a neurological assessment as it provides immediate information on the overall function of the brain. Changes in consciousness can indicate serious neurological issues such as head injuries or stroke. It is essential to prioritize assessing consciousness first to determine the urgency of the situation. Assessing reflexes (A), cranial nerve function (B), and pupil response (D) are also important in a neurological assessment but come after assessing the patient's level of consciousness, as they provide more specific and detailed information about the neurological status.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with diabetes is experiencing a hypoglycemic episode. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority in this situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing a source of fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic episode, the priority is to raise the blood sugar quickly to prevent further complications. Fast-acting carbohydrates such as glucose tablets or orange juice can rapidly increase blood sugar levels. Administering insulin (choice A) can further lower blood sugar, checking blood glucose levels (choice C) may delay treatment, and contacting the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary in the immediate management of hypoglycemia.
Question 5 of 9
A patient drifts off to sleep when there is no stimulation. The nurse can arouse her easily by calling her name, but she remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient's level of consciousness would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargic. Lethargic is defined as a state of drowsiness or diminished alertness where the patient can be easily aroused by simple stimuli like calling their name, but they remain drowsy and may drift back to sleep. This patient's ability to be aroused by verbal stimuli and their drowsiness during conversation fits the description of lethargic. Explanation for other choices: B: Obtunded - Obtunded refers to a more severe level of decreased consciousness where the patient is difficult to fully arouse and may have limited interactions with the nurse. C: Stuporous - Stuporous indicates an even deeper state of unconsciousness where the patient requires significant stimulation to be aroused and has minimal responsiveness. D: Semialert - Semialert would describe a patient who is more responsive than lethargic, showing better awareness of their surroundings and able to maintain a conversation more effectively.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing supplemental oxygen. In COPD, patients often have difficulty breathing due to impaired lung function. Supplemental oxygen helps improve oxygenation and relieves respiratory distress. Prioritizing this intervention is crucial for managing COPD exacerbations and preventing complications. Administering diuretics (A) may be indicated for comorbid conditions like heart failure but is not a priority in managing COPD. Increasing fluid intake (C) may not directly address the patient's respiratory distress. Encouraging bed rest (D) may lead to deconditioning and worsen respiratory function in COPD patients.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is unable to identify any changes in sound when percussing over the abdomen of an obese patient. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use less force to percuss over the abdomen. When percussing an obese patient's abdomen, more force may not be effective due to the increased tissue thickness. Using less force allows for better transmission of sound waves through the tissues, improving the nurse's ability to assess for changes in sound. Asking the patient to take deep breaths (choice A) may help relax the abdominal muscles but won't address the issue of increased tissue thickness. Considering it a normal finding (choice B) without attempting to improve assessment techniques could lead to missed abnormalities. Using more force (choice D) can be uncomfortable for the patient and may still not produce clear sounds due to the tissue barrier.
Question 8 of 9
The interview portion of data collection obtains:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subjective data. During the interview portion of data collection, subjective data is obtained as it involves personal opinions, feelings, and experiences shared by the interviewee. This data is based on individual perspectives and cannot be measured objectively. Physical data (A) refers to tangible measurements, historical data (B) relates to past events or records, and objective data (C) is based on observable and measurable facts. In contrast, subjective data (D) captures the interviewee's viewpoints and interpretations, making it the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements illustrates the biomedical model of Western traditional views?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the biomedical model focuses on defining health as the absence of disease. This model emphasizes biological factors in understanding and treating illnesses. It is reductionist in nature, viewing health issues as purely physical and separate from social or psychological aspects. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the biomedical model. B emphasizes overall well-being, not just the absence of disease. C suggests a more holistic approach, while D implies a focus on nursing rather than the medical model's emphasis on disease treatment.