ATI RN
health assessment exam 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements about mental health assessment is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because mental status is indeed inferred through assessment of an individual's behaviors. Mental health assessment involves observing and evaluating a person's thoughts, emotions, behaviors, and overall mental functioning to determine their mental status. This includes assessing speech, mood, cognition, and perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because: A: Mental health assessment does not solely focus on diagnosing specific psychiatric disorders; it is a broader evaluation of an individual's mental well-being. B: Mental disorders can result from a variety of factors beyond everyday life stressors, such as genetic predisposition or traumatic experiences. D: Mental health assessment is more complex than assessing physical characteristics and involves subjective interpretation of behaviors rather than direct observation like physical assessments.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the appropriate health promotion question to ask during a review of symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Do you use sunscreen while outside?" because it directly relates to health promotion by addressing preventive measures. Sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer and other skin conditions. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on assessing skin condition rather than promoting health. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to symptoms rather than prevention. Choice D is incorrect as it is related to assessing a specific symptom rather than promoting overall health.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with diabetes is experiencing a hypoglycemic episode. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority in this situation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing a source of fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic episode, the priority is to raise the blood sugar quickly to prevent further complications. Fast-acting carbohydrates such as glucose tablets or orange juice can rapidly increase blood sugar levels. Administering insulin (choice A) can further lower blood sugar, checking blood glucose levels (choice C) may delay treatment, and contacting the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary in the immediate management of hypoglycemia.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) about dietary changes. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In CKD, limiting potassium and phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent electrolyte imbalances and further kidney damage. Excessive protein intake can worsen kidney function, so the patient should not eat as much protein as they want. Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for hydration, but sodas are not recommended due to their high sugar and phosphorus content, which can be harmful for CKD patients. Therefore, option A is the best choice for proper understanding of dietary changes in CKD.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing supplemental oxygen. In COPD, patients often have difficulty breathing due to impaired lung function. Supplemental oxygen helps improve oxygenation and relieves respiratory distress. Prioritizing this intervention is crucial for managing COPD exacerbations and preventing complications. Administering diuretics (A) may be indicated for comorbid conditions like heart failure but is not a priority in managing COPD. Increasing fluid intake (C) may not directly address the patient's respiratory distress. Encouraging bed rest (D) may lead to deconditioning and worsen respiratory function in COPD patients.
Question 6 of 9
What question would you initially ask a patient who has a positive tuberculin test?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial question to ask a patient with a positive tuberculin test is whether they have received bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine. This is because BCG vaccination can cause a false positive result on the tuberculin test due to cross-reactivity with the purified protein derivative (PPD) used in the test. Asking about recent hospitalization (A), homelessness (B), or recent travel out of the country (D) would not provide relevant information regarding the interpretation of the positive tuberculin test.
Question 7 of 9
In the socioenvironmental model, the focus of the health care provider includes:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the socioenvironmental model, the health care provider aims to help the patient view health as a resource. This approach emphasizes empowering patients to take control of their health by recognizing it as an asset that enables them to lead fulfilling lives. By focusing on health as a resource, the provider encourages positive health behaviors and preventive measures. A, changing the patient's perceptions of disease, is incorrect because the socioenvironmental model does not solely target disease perceptions but rather prioritizes health promotion. B, identification of biomedical model interventions, is incorrect as the socioenvironmental model places more emphasis on holistic and social determinants of health rather than solely biomedical interventions. C, identifying the negative health behaviors of the patient, is also incorrect as the model aims to address health behaviors in a positive and empowering way rather than focusing solely on negatives.
Question 8 of 9
Which technique should be used to assess a murmur in a patient's heart?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The diaphragm of the stethoscope. The diaphragm is used to assess heart murmurs as it allows for higher-frequency sounds to be heard more clearly. When assessing heart murmurs, using the diaphragm helps to differentiate between systolic and diastolic murmurs, as well as to identify specific characteristics such as intensity and location. A: The bell of the stethoscope is used for low-frequency sounds and would not be ideal for assessing heart murmurs. C: Palpation with the palm of the hand is used to assess pulses and vibrations, not heart murmurs. D: Asking another nurse to double-check the finding is important for validation but does not directly relate to the technique used to assess a heart murmur.
Question 9 of 9
The interview portion of data collection obtains:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subjective data. During the interview portion of data collection, subjective data is obtained as it involves personal opinions, feelings, and experiences shared by the interviewee. This data is based on individual perspectives and cannot be measured objectively. Physical data (A) refers to tangible measurements, historical data (B) relates to past events or records, and objective data (C) is based on observable and measurable facts. In contrast, subjective data (D) captures the interviewee's viewpoints and interpretations, making it the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.