ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements about family Arenaviridae is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae. This virus is a well-known member of the Arenaviridae family and is associated with various diseases. Option A is incorrect as Arenaviruses can be isolated from clinical materials using suitable methods. Option B is incorrect because Arenaviruses replicate in the cytoplasm, not the nucleus. Option D is incorrect as Arenaviruses can infect various hosts, not just humans. Therefore, the statement that lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae is true.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing the disease known as leprosy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mycobacterium leprae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria known to cause leprosy. 2. Clostridium perfringens is incorrect as it is associated with gas gangrene. 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae is incorrect as it is commonly linked to pneumonia and meningitis. 4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect as it causes gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. In summary, Mycobacterium leprae is the only bacteria among the choices specifically known to cause leprosy, making it the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive bacteria?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thick peptidoglycan layer. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain during Gram staining. This thick layer is a key characteristic feature that helps differentiate Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain due to their thick peptidoglycan layer. 2. This thick layer provides structural support and protection to the cell. 3. Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane, which is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria (Choice A). 4. Thin peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice B). 5. Presence of LPS (lipopolysaccharide) is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice D). In summary, the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive
Question 4 of 9
Microscopic analysis of tissue sampling from affected area of mucous membrane of oral cavity revealed bacillus in form of accumulations that looked like a pack of cigarettes. Ziehl-Neelsen staining gives them red colour. What kind of pathogenic organism was most likely revealed in tissue sampling?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: M.tuberculosis. The description of bacillus in the form of accumulations resembling a pack of cigarettes and staining red with Ziehl-Neelsen staining is characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. M.leprae (Choice A) is associated with leprosy and does not typically appear as described. A.bovis (Choice C) is a type of Mycobacterium but is not typically found in the oral cavity. A.israilii (Choice D) is not associated with the characteristics mentioned in the question. Therefore, based on the specific characteristics described, M.tuberculosis is the most likely pathogenic organism revealed in the tissue sampling.
Question 5 of 9
The food preparation process in which not all microorganisms are killed, but the number of microbes capable of spoiling the food or causing disease is reduced, is called
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pasteurization. This process involves heating food to a specific temperature to kill harmful bacteria while preserving the flavor and quality of the food. Sanitation (A) refers to maintaining cleanliness to prevent contamination. Disinfection (C) involves killing most, but not all, microbes on surfaces. Purification (D) typically refers to the process of removing impurities, not specifically targeting microbes. In this case, pasteurization best describes the process of reducing harmful microbes in food without completely eliminating all microorganisms.
Question 6 of 9
What is the function of bacterial ribosomes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein synthesis. Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating the genetic information from mRNA into proteins. This process involves the binding of transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids to the ribosome and the formation of peptide bonds between the amino acids to create proteins. DNA replication (A) is carried out by DNA polymerase enzymes, not ribosomes. Energy production (C) is primarily the function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells, and cell division (D) is regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, not ribosomes.
Question 7 of 9
Two weeks after hemotransfusion a patient developed fever. What protozoal disease can be suspected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. Two weeks after hemotransfusion, the onset of fever indicates a possible bloodborne infection. Malaria is a protozoal disease transmitted through infected blood, causing symptoms like fever. Toxoplasmosis, Leishmaniasis, and Amebiasis are not typically associated with fever following hemotransfusion. Malaria fits the timeline and mode of transmission in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
Non - complete phagocytosis is observed during infections with:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Legionella pneumophila, Brucella melitensis can evade complete phagocytosis. 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion. 3. Legionella pneumophila can prevent phagosome maturation. 4. Brucella melitensis can survive and replicate within phagocytes. 5. A + B + C together represent non-complete phagocytosis. Summary: - A, B, C individually cause incomplete phagocytosis. - Only when all three are present together (D) is non-complete phagocytosis observed.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following consists of DNA viruses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Parvoviridae. Parvoviruses are DNA viruses, as their genetic material is composed of DNA. This distinguishes them from RNA viruses like Picornaviridae, Astroviridae, and Togaviridae. Parvoviruses replicate in the host cell nucleus, further confirming their DNA nature. Therefore, based on their DNA composition and replication process, Parvoviridae is the correct choice.