ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements about comfort care is aacbcirubr.caotme/?te st
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Comfort care is focused on providing relief from suffering and improving quality of life. Step 2: Patient-centered care emphasizes the individual's preferences and values. Step 3: Patient autonomy is a fundamental principle in healthcare decision-making. Step 4: Patients have the right to determine what constitutes comfort care for themselves. Step 5: Therefore, statement C is correct as it aligns with the patient's autonomy and individualized care approach. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because legal distinctions between withholding and withdrawing treatment may vary. - Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on evaluating procedures rather than the patient's preferences. - Choice D is incorrect as withdrawing life-sustaining treatments is not universally considered euthanasia.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a left radial arterial lianbierb, .caonmd/t eas tp ulmonary artery catheter inserted into the right subclavian vein. Which action by th e nurse best ensures the safety of the patient being monitored with invasive hemodynamic moni toring lines?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Zero reference the system daily. Zero referencing ensures accuracy and calibration of pressure monitoring system by setting the baseline pressure to zero. This is crucial to prevent inaccuracies in measurements. Choice A is important but doesn't directly address the accuracy of the monitoring system. Choice B may help in preventing errors but doesn't address the accuracy of pressure measurement. Choice D is important for alerting the nurse but doesn't directly relate to the accuracy of hemodynamic monitoring.
Question 3 of 9
Assuming each of these patients was discharged from the hospital, which older adult patient is at greatest risk for decreased functional status and quality of life?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because this patient had a complex surgery with complications, requiring long-term care and loss of a significant other, which can impact their emotional well-being and support system. This can lead to decreased functional status and quality of life. Choice B is incorrect as the patient has support from a spouse and manages health care independently, indicating a good support system. Choice C is incorrect as the patient is cognitively intact and social, which suggests a good quality of life. Choice D is incorrect as the patient had a less complex procedure, well-managed diabetes, and was living independently, which indicates a lower risk for decreased functional status and quality of life compared to choice A.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern characterized by periods of apnea followed by deep and rapid breathing. The nurse should document this pattern accurately. Option A is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated. Option B may worsen the respiratory pattern. Option C is not specifically related to addressing the breathing pattern.
Question 5 of 9
Which statement is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. This statement is true because proper oral care, including brushing teeth, oral suctioning, and using chlorhexidine gluconate, has been shown to reduce the risk of VAP by decreasing the colonization of pathogenic bacteria in the oral cavity. Regular oral care helps maintain oral hygiene and reduce the risk of aspiration of bacteria into the lungs, which is a common cause of VAP. Incorrect Answer Analysis: A: Tooth brushing every 2 hours may be excessive and could potentially cause harm to the oral mucosa, leading to increased risk of infection. C: While oral suctioning and brushing teeth are important components of oral care, the statement is not comprehensive enough to address the full range of interventions needed to prevent VAP. D: While chlorhexidine gluconate can be effective in preventing VAP, the statement implies that it is the only effective intervention, which is not true.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a National Patient Safety Goal? a(bSirebl.ceocmt /taelslt that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Accurately identifying patients is a National Patient Safety Goal to prevent errors in patient care. Proper patient identification ensures correct treatments and medications are given, reducing harm. Restraint elimination, medication reconciliation, and infection reduction are important goals but not specific National Patient Safety Goals. Accurate patient identification directly addresses patient safety concerns.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is admitted with acute kidney injury from a postrenal cause. Acceptable treatments for that diagnosis include: (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Bladder catheterization helps relieve urinary obstruction, a common postrenal cause of acute kidney injury. 2. By draining urine from the bladder, it prevents further damage to the kidneys. 3. This intervention addresses the underlying cause of the kidney injury, leading to improvement. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it directly addresses the postrenal cause by relieving urinary obstruction. - Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not target the specific postrenal cause of acute kidney injury.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat atrial flutter. The vital signs obtained are within normal range for this medication. A heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are not contraindications for administering verapamil. Option A is incorrect as calcium gluconate is not indicated in this situation. Option B is incorrect because the vital signs are stable and do not warrant withholding the medication. Option D is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration of verapamil based on the vital signs provided.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following situations may result in a low cardiac output and low cardiac index? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certainly. Hypovolemia, or low blood volume, can lead to low cardiac output and cardiac index because the heart has less blood to pump, resulting in reduced circulation. Exercise typically increases cardiac output to meet increased demand. Myocardial infarction may reduce cardiac output temporarily, but not consistently. Shock, a condition where the body's tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, can lead to low cardiac output, making it a possible cause.