ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following statements about air conduction is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a loss of air conduction, known as conductive hearing loss, refers to a problem conducting sound waves through the outer or middle ear. This type of hearing loss can be caused by issues such as earwax buildup, fluid in the middle ear, or problems with the ear canal or eardrum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because air conduction is not the most efficient pathway for hearing (choice A), it is not caused by vibrations of bones in the skull (choice B), and the pitch of sound is determined by the frequency, not the amplitude (choice C). Conductive hearing loss specifically relates to the transmission of sound through the outer and middle ear structures, making choice D the correct statement.
Question 2 of 9
While assessing the tonsils of a 30-year-old, the nurse notes that they look involuted and granular, and appear to have deep crypts. What is the correct follow-up to these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nothing, this is the appearance of normal tonsils. In a 30-year-old, tonsils commonly appear involuted, granular, and have deep crypts due to natural aging and exposure to infections. This is considered a normal variant and does not typically require further intervention. Referral to a specialist (Option A) is unnecessary as these findings are within the normal range. Continuing the assessment (Option C) may not yield significant abnormal findings related to the tonsils. Throat culture for strep (Option D) is not indicated unless there are specific symptoms or signs of infection.
Question 3 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is performing middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and visible landmarks. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. The presence of dense white patches on the tympanic membrane in a patient with a history of chronic ear infections indicates scarring from previous infections. This is a common finding in individuals who have experienced recurrent middle ear infections. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Fungal infections typically present with different characteristics such as discoloration or debris in the ear canal, not dense white patches on the tympanic membrane. C) Blood in the middle ear would manifest as redness or hemorrhage, not white patches. D) While scarring may affect hearing, the description of the tympanic membrane in this case does not suggest any immediate concern for hearing loss.
Question 5 of 9
When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse would expect to find that the tympanic membrane is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pearly grey and slightly concave. This is because a healthy tympanic membrane should appear pearly grey in color and slightly concave in shape. The pearly grey color indicates normal transparency and reflection of light, while the slightly concave shape is indicative of a normal eardrum. Choice A is incorrect as a light pink color and slight bulge are not characteristic of a healthy tympanic membrane. Choice C is incorrect because a pulled-in appearance at the base of the cone of light suggests retraction, which is abnormal. Choice D is incorrect as a whitish color with a small fleck of light is not a typical presentation of a healthy tympanic membrane.
Question 6 of 9
When a light is directed across the iris of the eye from the temporal side, the examiner is assessing for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the presence of shadows, which may indicate glaucoma. When a light is directed across the iris from the temporal side, it helps in evaluating the presence of shadows in the anterior chamber angle, which can suggest a narrow or closed angle glaucoma. This technique is known as transillumination test and is important in detecting potential glaucoma cases. A: Drainage from dacryocystitis is incorrect as it is typically assessed by pressing on the lacrimal sac area to observe for discharge. B: Conjunctivitis over the iris is incorrect as conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, not the iris. D: A scattered light reflex indicative of cataracts is incorrect as cataracts cause clouding of the lens, not scattering of light across the iris.
Question 7 of 9
During history-taking, a patient tells the nurse that he has frequent nosebleeds and asks about the best way to prevent them. What would be the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient experiences nosebleeds, the best way to stop it is by sitting straight with the head tilted slightly forward and pinching the nose firmly for about 10-15 minutes. This position helps reduce blood flow to the nose and promotes clotting. It is important not to tilt the head back as it can lead to blood going down the throat and potentially causing choking or vomiting. Cold compresses can also be applied to help constrict blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the proper technique for managing nosebleeds and can potentially worsen the situation.
Question 8 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 9 of 9
While performing a mouth assessment on a patient, the nurse notices a 1-cm ulceration that is crusted and has an elevated border. It is located on the outer third of the lower lip. What other information would be most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: When the patient first noticed the lesion. This information is crucial for determining the duration of the ulceration, aiding in diagnosing potential causes like trauma or infections. Nutritional status (Choice A) may not be directly related to the specific lesion. Whether the patient has had a recent cold (Choice C) is less relevant unless there are other symptoms present. Exposure to sick animals (Choice D) is not pertinent to the mouth ulceration. Therefore, obtaining information on when the patient first noticed the lesion is the most important for proper assessment and treatment planning.