Which of the following statement is correct regarding multichannel Urodynamics?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following statement is correct regarding multichannel Urodynamics?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Multichannel urodynamics is the most accurate tool for incontinence measures pressures (Pves, Pabd, Pdet derived), flow, and EMG, pinpointing causes (e.g., detrusor overactivity). Not all need it initial trials suffice for some. It assesses upper tract risk (e.g., high pressure) false to deny. Pdet is calculated, not direct minor flaw. Accuracy distinguishes it, critical for complex incontinence, unlike overuse, risk denial, or measurement errors.

Question 2 of 5

All of the following statements regarding plasmacytoid variant of urothelial carcinoma of urinary bladder are true, EXCEPT?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Plasmacytoid urothelial carcinoma isn't chemoresistant responds to chemo (e.g., cisplatin), unlike true statement. Rare (<1%) correct prevalence. Intraperitoneal spread typical aggressive pattern. Eosinophilic cytoplasm histologic feature. Sensitivity to chemo distinguishes the error, key to its management, unlike rarity, spread, or pathology truths.

Question 3 of 5

All of the following statements regarding focal therapy for renal tumors are true, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) ablates tumors >50% size reduction isn't typical; necrosis, not shrinkage, is goal false. <3 cm suitability true, small tumors ideal. Less demanding than partial nephrectomy correct, minimally invasive. Cryoablation at -40°C accurate, lethal threshold. Lack of significant shrinkage distinguishes RFA's effect, key to focal therapy outcomes, unlike size, ease, or temp truths.

Question 4 of 5

All of the following are treatment options for high-risk localised prostate cancer, Except

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Active surveillance suits low/intermediate-risk prostate cancer monitor, not treat high-risk (e.g., Gleason >7). Watchful waiting (palliative) fits comorbidities less aggressive. Prostatectomy + lymph node dissection and radiotherapy are curative high-risk standards. Surveillance's low-risk focus distinguishes it, key to risk-based management, unlike palliative or definitive options.

Question 5 of 5

The nerve supply of the Adrenal gland is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Adrenal medulla receives sympathetic innervation (splanchnic nerves) triggers catecholamine release (e.g., epinephrine). Cortex lacks direct nerves hormonal control (ACTH). Parasympathetic doesn't supply adrenal vagal elsewhere. Medulla's sympathetic link distinguishes it, key to fight-or-flight, unlike cortex or parasympathetic errors.

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