ATI RN
Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statement about retroviral protease inhibitors? *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because retroviral protease inhibitors specifically target the protease enzyme in HIV, which is essential for viral replication at an early step. This disrupts the maturation of new viral particles, inhibiting viral replication. Choice B is incorrect as zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, not a protease inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as protease inhibitors are known to inhibit CYP3A4, leading to drug interactions, but not all of them interact with many other drugs. Choice D is incorrect as it combines two separate statements without providing accurate information.
Question 2 of 5
Which antibiotics should be avoided in patients of liver disease?: *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetracycline. Tetracycline should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to its potential hepatotoxicity. Tetracycline is known to cause liver damage and can worsen the condition in patients with pre-existing liver disease. Summary of other choices: B: Cotrimoxazole - Generally safe in patients with liver disease. C: Cephalexin - Safe for use in patients with liver disease. D: Ethambutol - Not associated with liver toxicity, safe to use in patients with liver disease.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following diuretics is most widely used to treat mild * hypertension?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a thiazide diuretic commonly used to treat mild hypertension. Thiazide diuretics work by reducing the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production and lower blood pressure. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic primarily used for more severe conditions. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic often used for conditions like heart failure. Amiloride (D) is also a potassium-sparing diuretic but is not typically used as a first-line treatment for hypertension.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has low cardiac output due to poor cardiac function. He is * edematous. Which one of the following should be avoided because it can aggravate cardiac dysfunctions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can worsen cardiac function by increasing plasma volume and potentially exacerbating edema. Furosemide (A) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are loop and thiazide diuretics, respectively, commonly used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure patients. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is often added to the treatment regimen in heart failure to help counteract potassium loss from other diuretics.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following diuretics than can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism and * menstrual disturbances as adverse reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that also acts as an anti-androgen. It can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism, and menstrual disturbances due to its anti-androgenic effects, blocking the action of male hormones like testosterone. Hydrocholorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic that does not typically cause these specific adverse reactions. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic that is not associated with gynecomastia, hirsutism, or menstrual disturbances. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic that does not commonly lead to these particular side effects.