Which of the following stains is generally used for the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid-fast stain. This stain is used for diagnosing tuberculosis due to the unique cell wall composition of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which resists decolorization by acid-alcohol. This allows the bacteria to retain the primary stain (carbol fuchsin) and appear red under a microscope. Gram stain (B) is not suitable for Mycobacterium tuberculosis as it is gram-positive but does not retain the crystal violet-iodine complex. Negative stain (C) is not used for bacterial identification. Simple stain (D) does not differentiate acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycoplasma hominis, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Ureaplasma urealyticum are all known to cause non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis. These organisms can infect the urogenital tract and lead to inflammation and symptoms in both males and females. Each of these bacteria has been identified as a common cause of these conditions through research and clinical studies. Therefore, since all three organisms are capable of causing non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis, the correct answer is D. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of them alone can cause these conditions, making option D the most comprehensive and accurate choice.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erysipelas. Erysipelas is a type of acute infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. This bacteria infects the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, leading to a distinct raised, well-demarcated, erythematous skin lesion. The other choices are incorrect because: A Carbuncle is a deep skin infection involving hair follicles, B Impetigo is a superficial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, and D Acne is a chronic inflammatory skin condition not typically caused by group A Streptococcus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium that appears as long, thin, and spiral-shaped microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils under the microscope. This characteristic morphology is specific to Treponema species, making it the correct choice. Borrelia, Leptospira, and Vibrios have different shapes and arrangements under the microscope, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because lipophilization is the process of removing water from cells under deep vacuum in a frozen state. Dehydration of the cell at a low temperature helps to preserve the cellular structure and components. Choice B is incorrect as hydration does the opposite of what lipophilization aims to achieve. Choice C is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve enriching cells with proteins. Choice D is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve removing protein content from cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood. Toxoplasmosis is diagnosed through serological tests that detect specific antibodies in the blood. These antibodies indicate exposure to the Toxoplasma gondii parasite. Feces, urine, and duodenal contents are not typically used for diagnosing toxoplasmosis as the parasite is not commonly found in these samples. Blood is the primary material used as it provides the necessary antibodies for accurate diagnosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norwalk Virus. The Norwalk Virus belongs to the family Caliciviridae because it has characteristic features such as a nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA genome. The other options, Yellow fever virus, Rubella virus, and CMV, belong to different virus families and have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from Caliciviridae. Yellow fever virus is a Flavivirus, Rubella virus belongs to Togaviridae, and CMV is a member of the Herpesviridae family. Therefore, based on the genomic and structural characteristics of the Norwalk Virus, it is the correct choice for belonging to the Caliciviridae family.