ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the indicators BEST describes an effective outcome of school nursing programs and initiatives.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because zero absenteeism and tardiness of pupils indicate that the school nursing programs are effectively promoting student health and well-being. This outcome shows that students are healthy, engaged, and present in school, which is a key goal of school nursing initiatives. Choice B is incorrect as teachers being observers does not directly measure the effectiveness of the nursing programs. Choice C is incorrect as limited information hinders the success and impact of school health initiatives. Choice D is incorrect as constant visits and phone calls from parents may not necessarily reflect the success of the nursing programs.
Question 3 of 9
A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.
Question 5 of 9
A 20-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and missed menstrual periods for the past two months. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. On transvaginal ultrasound, an empty uterus is visualized, and there is fluid in the cul-de-sac. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. In this scenario, the combination of missed periods, positive pregnancy test, and empty uterus on ultrasound with fluid in the cul-de-sac is highly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of fluid in the cul-de-sac indicates possible blood from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, causing the severe lower abdominal pain. Ovarian cyst rupture (A) typically presents with less severe pain. Septic abortion (C) would present with signs of infection and products of conception in the uterus. Ovarian torsion (D) would present with acute onset of unilateral lower abdominal pain and a palpable adnexal mass, not fluid in the cul-de-sac.
Question 6 of 9
When patient record reach the Medical Records, the assigned staff will _____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking the completeness of the charting by doctors and nurses ensures that all necessary information is accurately documented, facilitating proper patient care and treatment. This step helps identify any missing or incorrect information that may impact patient safety. A: Storing the charts in respective shelves is a routine task that does not involve verifying the accuracy or completeness of the information. B: Separating medico-legal charts is important but does not directly address the completeness of charting by doctors and nurses. D: Binding the charts immediately is not necessary before ensuring the completeness and accuracy of the information documented.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Mauve is now on ethical dilemma. This occurs when _______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.
Question 8 of 9
Outbreak of cases of typhoid fever occurs in the community. Nurse Keena should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Food and water. Typhoid fever is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. The bacteria are shed in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate water sources or food prepared with contaminated water. This transmission route aligns with the typical epidemiology of typhoid fever outbreaks. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: A vector - Typhoid fever is not transmitted by a vector such as mosquitoes or ticks. B: Blood and body fluids - Typhoid fever is not typically spread through blood or body fluids but rather through ingestion of contaminated food or water. D: Air - Typhoid fever is not an airborne disease and is not transmitted through the air.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is working in a clinic that is designed to provide health education and immunization. As such, the clinic aims to provide_______________
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary prevention. In this scenario, the clinic focuses on preventing disease before it occurs through health education and immunization. Primary prevention aims to promote general health and prevent the onset of diseases. It targets the entire population to reduce the risk of disease occurrence. Incorrect Choices: A: Diagnosis and treatment - This choice involves identifying and treating existing health conditions, which is not the primary focus of a clinic designed for health education and immunization. B: Secondary prevention - This choice involves early detection and treatment of diseases to prevent complications, which is more focused on individuals who already have risk factors or symptoms, not on the general population. D: Tertiary prevention - This choice involves managing and treating complications of diseases to prevent further deterioration, which is not the primary goal of a clinic focused on health education and immunization.