Which of the following signs and symptoms most likely occurred in this patient after the inappropriate increase of the drug dose?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disorientation and lethargy. Inappropriate increase of drug dose can lead to drug toxicity, resulting in central nervous system depression. Disorientation and lethargy are common signs of CNS depression. Shallow breathing (choice B) may indicate respiratory depression, but it typically occurs after severe drug overdose. Unconsciousness (choice C) is a more severe manifestation that may occur after prolonged CNS depression. Severe pain in both legs (choice D) is unlikely to be directly related to drug overdose but may indicate an unrelated condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To avoid opportunistic infections after surgery. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system, which can increase the risk of infections. Restarting prednisone post-surgery may be necessary to prevent opportunistic infections due to the patient's suppressed immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because adrenal insufficiency, wound healing, and gallbladder relaxation are not typically primary goals for restarting prednisone treatment in this context.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dexamethasone. 1. Acute iridocyclitis is an inflammation of the iris and ciliary body, requiring a potent anti-inflammatory drug like a corticosteroid. 2. Dexamethasone is a potent corticosteroid that helps reduce inflammation in the eye, making it suitable for treating acute iridocyclitis. 3. Indomethacin (A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) which may not be as effective in controlling the inflammation in the eye. 4. Apraclonidine (B) and Timolol (C) are both used to lower intraocular pressure in conditions like glaucoma, not for treating inflammation like in acute iridocyclitis. In summary, Dexamethasone is the appropriate choice for treating acute iridocyclitis due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties, while the other options are not as effective for this specific condition

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Levonorgestrel. Levonorgestrel is a progestin commonly used for emergency contraception due to its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy when taken shortly after unprotected intercourse. It works by inhibiting ovulation and fertilization. Clomiphene (A) is used to induce ovulation, not for emergency contraception. Leuprolide (B) is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist used for conditions like endometriosis or prostate cancer, not for emergency contraception. Fulvestrant (D) is a selective estrogen receptor degrader used in breast cancer treatment, not for emergency contraception.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because testosterone therapy for adult-onset hypogonadism typically suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, leading to reduced LH secretion. This is due to negative feedback inhibition by the exogenous testosterone. Enhanced LH secretion is not expected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as testosterone therapy does not directly impact clotting factors synthesis, bone marrow stem cell growth, or erythropoietin synthesis.