Which of the following separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The central sulcus. The central sulcus is a prominent groove on the surface of the brain that separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. This anatomical landmark is crucial in delineating the functional areas of the brain. The other choices are incorrect because: A: The grey matter is a type of brain tissue that is not specific to separating the frontal and parietal lobes. C: The hippocampus is a structure involved in memory and spatial navigation, not in separating brain lobes. D: Broca's area is a region in the frontal lobe responsible for speech production, not for separating lobes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Inverse agonist- drug causes an opposite effect of the agonist Rationale: 1. Inverse agonists bind to the same receptor site as agonists but produce the opposite effect. 2. They decrease constitutive receptor activity. 3. Unlike agonists, they induce a biological response opposite to that of endogenous ligands. 4. Therefore, choice C is correct. Summary: A: Partial agonist- Incorrect. Partial agonists do not fully activate receptors. B: Antagonist- Incorrect. Antagonists do not activate a response, they block the receptor. D: Agonist- Incorrect. Agonists bind and activate receptors, leading to a biological response.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Increased levels of acetylcholine can lead to hallucinations due to its role in regulating cognitive functions and neural communication. Excess acetylcholine can disrupt this balance, causing abnormal brain activity and perception. Alzheimer's, depression, and Parkinson's are not directly associated with increased acetylcholine levels. Alzheimer's is linked to acetylcholine deficiency, depression involves serotonin and norepinephrine imbalance, and Parkinson's is related to dopamine deficiency.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nigrostriatal pathway. Haldol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors. The nigrostriatal pathway is associated with motor control, and blocking dopamine in this pathway can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms like slowness. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Tuberoinfundibular pathway regulates prolactin secretion. B: Mesocortical pathway is associated with cognitive and emotional functions. D: Mesolimbic pathway is involved in reward and reinforcement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Asenapine. Asenapine is the only second-generation antipsychotic available in sublingual form or as a transdermal patch. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption into the bloodstream, bypassing first-pass metabolism. This route is useful for patients who have difficulty swallowing pills. A transdermal patch provides a convenient and consistent delivery of the medication over an extended period. Clazapine (A) is not a common antipsychotic medication. Quetiapine (B) and Olanzapine (D) are not available in sublingual or transdermal forms.