ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following responses indicates sympathetic nervous system function?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tachycardia (increased heart rate) and dilated pupils are classic responses of the sympathetic nervous system activation. Sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate and dilated pupils to prepare the body for quick action. Choice B is incorrect because hypoglycemia and headache are not specific to sympathetic nervous system function. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis and abdominal cramping are more indicative of parasympathetic nervous system activity. Choice D is incorrect because pupil constriction and bronchoconstriction are actions of the parasympathetic nervous system, responsible for rest and digest functions.
Question 2 of 9
A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5 FU [Fluoroplex]). Fluorouracil is commonly used in chemotherapy for liver cancer to inhibit cancer cell growth. It is a pyrimidine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis. Fluoxymesterone (A) is an androgen used in hormone replacement therapy, not in liver cancer treatment. Tamoxifen (C) is an antiestrogen used in breast cancer treatment, not liver cancer. Megestrol (D) is a progestin used in hormone therapy for breast cancer and endometrial cancer, not liver cancer. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly targets cancer cell growth in liver cancer treatment.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is using assessment data gathered about a patient and combining critical thinking to develop a nursing diagnosis. What is the nurse doing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diagnostic reasoning. This involves analyzing assessment data, utilizing critical thinking skills to identify patient problems, and formulating nursing diagnoses. Diagnostic reasoning is the process of synthesizing information to make clinical judgments and determine appropriate interventions. A: Assigning clinical cues - Incorrect. This refers to identifying observable signs or symptoms, not the process of developing a nursing diagnosis. B: Defining characteristics - Incorrect. This term is often used to describe the symptoms or manifestations associated with a nursing diagnosis, not the process of deriving the diagnosis. D: Diagnostic labeling - Incorrect. This is the final step in the nursing diagnosis process where the nurse assigns a label to the identified patient problem, not the process of critical thinking and data analysis.
Question 4 of 9
\What should the nurse teach an older client with TIA?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To comply with the medication regimen. Teaching the older client with TIA to comply with medication regimen is crucial in preventing further TIAs or strokes. Medications like antiplatelets or anticoagulants are often prescribed to manage TIA. This education empowers the client to actively participate in their own health management. Incorrect choices: A: Not to worry about the symptoms that are part of the normal aging process - This is incorrect as TIA symptoms are not considered a normal part of aging and should not be ignored. B: To admit oneself to a rehabilitation center or a nursing home for rehabilitation - This is incorrect as it is not the primary intervention for managing TIA. D: To observe any changes in the nails and skin - This is incorrect as it is not directly related to managing TIA.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with bronchogenic carcinoma. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions. This takes highest priority as compromised airway can lead to respiratory distress and potential respiratory failure. Maintaining clear airways is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are important but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to compromised airway. Disturbed body image, anxiety, and imbalanced nutrition can be addressed once the airway clearance is stabilized.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff nursing actions is helpful for older clients who are experiencing lens changes associated with aging?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, suggesting the use of glasses or contact lenses. This is because as older clients experience lens changes associated with aging, they may develop presbyopia or other vision issues that can be corrected with corrective lenses. Glasses or contact lenses can help improve their vision and quality of life. A, offering teaching aids with large-sized letters, may be helpful for clients with visual impairments but may not directly address the specific lens changes associated with aging. B, suggesting reduced visual activity, is not beneficial as it may further limit the client's engagement in daily activities and social interactions. C, suggesting the use of eye drops for comfort, may provide temporary relief for dry eyes but does not address the underlying lens changes affecting vision.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following signs indicates to the nurse that digoxin (Lanoxin) has been effective for a patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output increases. This indicates digoxin's effectiveness as it improves cardiac output by enhancing contraction strength. Increased urine output signifies improved kidney perfusion due to enhanced cardiac function. Option A is incorrect as decreased urine output indicates poor kidney perfusion. Option B is incorrect as digoxin aims to regulate heart rate, not necessarily make it higher than 95. Option D is incorrect as a heart rate lower than 50 could indicate digoxin toxicity.
Question 8 of 9
Other signs of hypovolemia includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because decreased pulse rate and widened pulse pressure are not signs of hypovolemia. In hypovolemia, the body tries to compensate by increasing the heart rate and narrowing the pulse pressure to maintain adequate blood flow. A is incorrect as dry mucous membranes and soft eyeballs are signs of dehydration. B is incorrect as increased hematocrit and hemoglobin are indicators of hemoconcentration in hypovolemia. D is incorrect as increased lethargy and confusion can be seen in severe hypovolemia due to poor perfusion of vital organs.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures. In chronic hyperparathyroidism, there is excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased bone resorption and calcium release from bones, causing bone demineralization and weakening. This puts the client at risk for pathologic fractures. Choice B is incorrect because exhaustion is not a direct consequence of chronic hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as edema and dry skin are not typical manifestations of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because tetany is more commonly associated with hypocalcemia, which is not a typical finding in hyperparathyroidism.