Which of the following proteins are encoded by herpesviruses and required for viral DNA replication

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microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following proteins are encoded by herpesviruses and required for viral DNA replication

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: viral DNA polymerase. Herpesviruses require viral DNA polymerase for viral DNA replication. This enzyme is responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands using existing viral DNA as a template. Ribonucleotide reductase (B) is not directly involved in DNA replication but in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides. Neuraminidase (C) is an enzyme found in influenza viruses, not herpesviruses. Thymidine kinase (D) is involved in nucleotide metabolism but is not essential for viral DNA replication in herpesviruses.

Question 2 of 9

A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.

Question 3 of 9

The generation time of Escherichia Coli is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 20 minutes. Escherichia coli has a short generation time, typically around 20 minutes. This means that under ideal conditions, one bacterium can divide and produce two daughter cells every 20 minutes. This rapid growth rate is a characteristic of E. coli and is important in various fields such as microbiology and biotechnology. Choice B (60 minutes) and Choice C (20 hours) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical generation time of E. coli. Choice D (24 hours) is also incorrect as it is too long for the generation time of E. coli.

Question 4 of 9

On the 15-th day after a minor trauma of the right foot a patient felt malaise, fatigability, irritability, headache, high body temperature, feeling of compression, tension and muscular twitching of his right crus. What disease can it be?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which produces a toxin affecting the nervous system. Symptoms such as malaise, irritability, muscular twitching, and high body temperature are characteristic of tetanus due to muscle spasms and rigidity. The 15-day incubation period after trauma aligns with the typical onset of tetanus symptoms. Incorrect choices: B: Anaerobic gas gangrene - This condition usually presents with localized tissue necrosis and gas bubbles in the affected area, not systemic symptoms like malaise and headache. C: Erysipelas - This is a bacterial skin infection presenting with red, swollen patches, not the neurological symptoms seen in tetanus. D: Acute thrombophlebitis - This is a blood clot in a vein causing pain and swelling, not associated with the systemic symptoms and muscle twitching seen in tetanus.

Question 5 of 9

During the examination of a patient, who had been to the mountain pasture and had been hospitalized in a bad condition with fever, the doctor found out the enlargement of inguinal lymph nodes to 8 cm, which were attached to the surrounding tissues, immovable, the skin above them was red and tender. The microscopic examination of the node revealed acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. What disease is it typical for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The patient has symptoms of fever, enlarged lymph nodes, red and tender skin, which are indicative of systemic infection. 2. The inguinal lymph nodes in plague become enlarged, tender, and painful, forming buboes. 3. The presence of acute serohemorrhagic inflammation in the lymph node is characteristic of plague. 4. Plague is a zoonotic bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis, commonly transmitted through fleas from rodents. 5. Brucellosis, anthrax, and tularemia do not typically present with inguinal lymph node involvement and acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. Summary: - Brucellosis: Usually presents with flu-like symptoms, joint pain, and fever, not inguinal lymph node enlargement. - Anthrax: Presents with skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, or gastrointestinal symptoms, not inguinal lymph node involvement. - Tularemia: Presents with fever, skin ulcers,

Question 6 of 9

This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.

Question 7 of 9

A bacteriological laboratory has received smears from the sputum of a patient with a chronic pulmonary disease. Microscopical examination of the smears stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen technique revealed red bacilli. What property of the tuberculosis bacillus has shown itself?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid resistance. The Ziehl-Neelsen staining technique is specifically used to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is resistant to acid decolorization. This property allows the tuberculosis bacillus to retain the stain even after exposure to acid-alcohol, appearing red under the microscope. Explanation of incorrect choices: B: Alkali resistance - This property is not relevant in the context of Ziehl-Neelsen staining for acid-fast bacteria. C: Alcohol resistance - While alcohol resistance is related to acid-fastness, it is not the specific property highlighted by Ziehl-Neelsen staining. D: Capsule formation - Capsule formation is a different characteristic and not directly related to the staining behavior of acid-fast bacteria in the Ziehl-Neelsen technique.

Question 8 of 9

Subcutaneous mycoses occur predominantly in the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Subcutaneous mycoses are fungal infections that affect the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and bones. The correct answer is A: tropics, as these infections are more commonly found in warm and humid regions. Fungi that cause subcutaneous mycoses thrive in tropical climates due to the favorable conditions for their growth and transmission. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because deserts (B) have dry conditions not conducive to fungal growth, forests of the Northern Hemisphere (C) have varying climates that may not support the specific fungi causing subcutaneous mycoses, and the Rocky Mountains (D) are not typically associated with the high humidity required for these infections.

Question 9 of 9

Widal test is used to diagnose

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Widal test is used to diagnose typhoid fever caused by the bacteria Salmonella typhi. The test detects antibodies produced in response to the bacteria. Positive results indicate a current or past infection with typhoid fever. Choice A (Syphilis) is incorrect as it is diagnosed using different tests like RPR or TPPA. Choice C (AIDS) is diagnosed with HIV tests like ELISA or Western blot. Choice D (Lyme disease) is diagnosed using tests like ELISA or Western blot specific for Borrelia burgdorferi.

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