Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.

Question 2 of 9

The last and necessary part of the activity is _______.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The last and necessary part of any activity should involve an evaluation process. By evaluating the activity, the organizers can gather feedback on what worked well and what areas need improvement. This feedback is crucial for enhancing future activities that are similar in nature. It allows for reflections on the effectiveness of the activity, identifies strengths and weaknesses, and helps in making necessary adjustments for better outcomes in the future. Overall, evaluation ensures continuous improvement and development in organizing successful activities.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma presents with fever, chills, and generalized malaise. Laboratory tests reveal pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms and laboratory findings consistent with a paraneoplastic syndrome related to Hodgkin lymphoma. In this case, the fever, chills, generalized malaise, pancytopenia, circulating Reed-Sternberg cells, and bone marrow involvement are all indicative of a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkin lymphoma. Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that are triggered by an abnormal immune response to a neoplasm, such as Hodgkin lymphoma, leading to various systemic manifestations.

Question 4 of 9

When the nurse collects data at one point in time are called which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse collects data at one point in time, it is referred to as a cross-sectional study. Cross-sectional studies are observational research designs that provide a snapshot of a population or a sample at a specific point in time. This type of study can help identify associations or relationships between variables at a single time point but cannot establish causality or determine changes over time. In contrast, time series involve collecting data over multiple time points, longitudinal studies follow individuals or samples over time to track changes or outcomes, and crossover studies involve multiple interventions or treatments over different periods.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is participating in a healthcare team meeting to discuss a patient's care plan. What is the nurse's role in interdisciplinary collaboration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's role in interdisciplinary collaboration is crucial for providing comprehensive and effective patient care. By actively participating in healthcare team meetings, the nurse should listen attentively to the input of other team members, contribute their expertise, and share relevant information about the patient's condition. Collaboration involves working together towards shared goals, pooling knowledge and resources, and fostering mutual respect among team members. The nurse's active involvement in the care planning process helps ensure coordinated and patient-centered care delivery. This approach enhances communication, improves outcomes, and promotes a holistic approach to patient care.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with recurrent pulmonary exacerbations characterized by increased sputum production, cough, and fever. Which of the following treatments is most effective for addressing the underlying pathophysiology of CF and preventing disease progression?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most effective treatment for addressing the underlying pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis (CF) and preventing disease progression is the use of mucolytic agents, such as dornase alfa. CF is a genetic disorder that leads to the production of thick, sticky mucus in the respiratory tract. This mucus buildup can obstruct airways, lead to recurrent infections, and contribute to pulmonary exacerbations. Mucolytic agents work by reducing the viscosity of the mucus, making it easier to clear from the airways. This helps to improve lung function, reduce the frequency of exacerbations, and slow down disease progression in CF patients. Inhaled corticosteroids may be used for managing airway inflammation, but they do not target the underlying mucus production in CF. Antibiotic therapy is important for treating respiratory infections in CF patients, but it does not address the primary

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with sudden onset of severe, unilateral ear pain, diminished hearing, and purulent otorrhea. Otoscopic examination reveals a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with obscured landmarks. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Acute otitis media is the most likely condition responsible for this presentation. The sudden onset of severe, unilateral ear pain, diminished hearing, and purulent otorrhea are classic symptoms of acute otitis media. Otoscopic examination revealing a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with obscured landmarks further supports the diagnosis. The bulging of the tympanic membrane is due to the accumulation of fluid and pus behind it, causing the characteristic appearance. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to help clear the infection and relieve symptoms. If left untreated, acute otitis media can lead to complications such as perforation of the eardrum or mastoiditis.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described are classic for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Patients typically present with weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), and eventually develop difficulty swallowing and breathing due to involvement of the muscles responsible for these functions. Parkinson's disease (Choice A) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia but does not typically present with muscle atrophy or fasciculations as described in the case. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (Choice B) is an acute inflammatory condition affecting peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis, which is usually reversible. Myasthenia gravis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disorder that affects neu

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and vomiting. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A pituitary adenoma is a type of benign tumor that arises from the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. When a pituitary adenoma grows large enough, it can compress surrounding structures, including the optic chiasm – the point at which the optic nerves cross over in the brain. Compression of the optic chiasm can lead to symptoms such as vision problems (e.g., visual disturbances), headaches, and nausea/vomiting, which are consistent with the presentation described in the question. Meningiomas, glioblastoma multiforme, and medulloblastomas are less likely to compress the optic chiasm and present with different characteristic symptoms based on their locations and growth patterns.

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