Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?

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ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hemoglobinuria is a characteristic sign of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. Hemolytic reactions can lead to the destruction of red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the urine, which presents as hemoglobinuria. Chest pain, urticaria, and distended neck veins are not specific signs of a hemolytic reaction and may be associated with other conditions or reactions.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following interventions is considered the most effective form of universal precautions?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most effective form of universal precautions is to discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container. This practice minimizes the risk of needle-stick injuries, which are a significant concern when dealing with used needles. By safely disposing of uncapped needles, healthcare providers can protect themselves and others from potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

Question 4 of 9

The physician orders the administration of high-humidity oxygen by face mask and placement of the patient in a high Fowler's position. After assessing Mrs. Paul, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions has the greatest potential for improving this situation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is the most effective intervention in cases of impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. This technique helps mobilize and clear secretions from the airways, thereby improving gas exchange in the lungs. Placing a humidifier or administering oxygen by high humidity face mask may provide moisture but may not directly address the clearance of secretions. Encouraging increased fluid intake can help with hydration but may not address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange due to secretions.

Question 5 of 9

A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor. This is the most appropriate action as the supervisor is in a position to address staffing concerns effectively and make necessary changes. Complaining to fellow nurses may not lead to a solution, waiting may exacerbate the issue, and demanding staff rotation without proper discussion is not a collaborative approach to resolving the problem.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough all point towards a potential airway clearance issue. This makes option A, 'Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions,' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. It directly addresses the thick secretions and suggests a potential cause of the breathing difficulty the patient is experiencing.

Question 7 of 9

When is sterile technique used?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 8 of 9

To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.

Question 9 of 9

A healthcare provider reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3-month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The healthcare provider could be charged with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The scenario described involves a breach of duty by the healthcare provider to properly supervise the infant, resulting in harm. This failure to meet the standard of care falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or misconduct. Malpractice specifically applies to situations where a healthcare provider's actions or omissions deviate from the accepted standard of care, causing harm to a patient. In this case, the nurse's lack of supervision leading to the infant falling off the scale and sustaining a skull fracture would be considered malpractice.

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