ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following patients should the nurse monitors because of increased risk for surgical complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's Body Mass Index (BMI) indicates obesity, putting them at higher risk for surgical complications. Obesity is associated with increased risks of infections, delayed wound healing, respiratory issues, and cardiovascular problems post-surgery. Monitoring this patient closely is crucial. Choice A is less likely to have increased surgical complications due to age and condition. Choice C, a 12-year-old, is less likely to have significant surgical complications compared to adults. Choice D, a 17-year-old with gallstones, may have risks but the BMI of the patient in choice B indicates a higher risk.
Question 2 of 9
A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis site for cancer cells?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. The liver is a common site for metastasis because it receives blood from various organs, making it a prime location for cancer cells to travel and establish secondary tumors. Additionally, the liver has a rich blood supply and provides a favorable environment for cancer cells to thrive. In contrast, B (Reproductive tract) and C (Colon) are not as common sites for metastasis compared to the liver. Choice D (White blood cells) is incorrect as metastasis involves the spread of cancer cells to distant organs, not within the blood cells themselves.
Question 3 of 9
A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.
Question 4 of 9
The patient is having difficulty coping with her new diagnosis of lymphoma. Which response by the nurse is most helpful?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it helps the patient explore her support system. By asking who she usually goes to when facing problems, the nurse encourages the patient to identify her sources of emotional support, which can help her cope with the new diagnosis. This response acknowledges the patient's need for support and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: "Don't worry. You'll be okay." - This response dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address her emotional needs. B: "The treatments you are receiving will make you feel better very soon." - While this statement provides information about treatment, it does not directly address the patient's difficulty in coping with the diagnosis. D: "Have you made end-of-life decisions?" - This response may be premature and could unnecessarily increase the patient's anxiety about her prognosis.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse who is caring for an unresponsive client formulates the nursing diagnosis, 'Risk for Aspiration related to reduced level of consciousness.' The nurse documents this nursing diagnosis as correct based on the understanding that which of the following is a characteristic of this type of diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Is written as a two-part statement. This is because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (risk for aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). By using a two-part statement, the nurse clearly identifies the client's current health problem and the underlying reason for it. This format helps in developing appropriate nursing interventions to address the issue. Choice B is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis does not describe the client's response to a health problem; it identifies the potential risk for aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as the diagnosis does not focus on enhancement but rather on potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the nursing diagnosis is based on the available evidence of the client's reduced level of consciousness, which poses a risk for aspiration.
Question 6 of 9
When monitoring for hypernatremia, the nurse should assess the client for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Confusion. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by high sodium levels in the blood. Confusion is a common symptom as high sodium levels can affect brain function. Dry skin (A) is more indicative of dehydration, tachycardia (B) is a symptom of various conditions, and pale coloring (D) is not specific to hypernatremia. Confusion is a key indicator that the nurse should assess for when monitoring for hypernatremia.
Question 7 of 9
When a client is receiving blood which of the ff nursing actions is essential to determine if chilling is the result of an emerging complication or of infusing cold blood?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring the client's temperature before, during, and after the transfusion allows the nurse to identify any changes or trends that may indicate a complication related to the blood transfusion. This comprehensive monitoring helps differentiate between a normal body response to cold blood infusion and a potential adverse reaction. Choice B is incorrect because documenting the client's temperature only after the transfusion may miss important changes during the process. Choice C is incorrect as the temperature of the blood before transfusion does not directly indicate the client's response to the chilled blood. Choice D is incorrect as comparing the client's temperature with the temperature of the blood alone does not provide a complete picture of the client's condition throughout the transfusion process.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following examples of client data needs to be validated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because validating the client's statement about not needing glasses is crucial for accurate data collection. This step ensures that the client's difficulty reading is not due to poor eyesight. - Choice B is about interpreting physical signs, not client data validation. - Choice C involves documenting objective findings, not validating client information. - Choice D pertains to a client's complaint, not necessarily requiring validation.
Question 9 of 9
The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Glucocorticoids and androgens. The adrenal cortex is divided into three layers, with the outer layer responsible for producing mineralocorticoids like aldosterone, the middle layer producing glucocorticoids like cortisol, and the inner layer producing androgens. Glucocorticoids are essential for regulating metabolism and immune response, while androgens are male sex hormones. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because mineralocorticoids, catecholamines, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are produced by different parts of the adrenal gland, not specifically by the adrenal cortex.