ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS. Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
Question 2 of 9
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the same as for men. GFR is calculated based on factors like age, weight, and serum creatinine levels, which are not directly influenced by gender. Therefore, the creatinine clearance for women is the same as for men. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no inherent biological difference between men and women that would cause a difference in creatinine clearance for GFR calculation.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with head trauma who was admitted to the surgical intensive care unit following a motorcycle crash. What is an important assessment that will assist the nurse in early identification of an endocrine disorder commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine osmolality. In head trauma patients, the risk of developing diabetes insipidus (DI) is high due to damage to the posterior pituitary. Monitoring urine osmolality helps identify DI early, as low urine osmolality indicates impaired concentration ability. This is crucial for prompt treatment to prevent dehydration. Choices A and B are important but not specific to endocrine disorders. Choice C is relevant for respiratory assessment, not endocrine disorders.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is receiving hydrocortisone sodium succinate for adrenal crisis. What other medication does the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A proton pump inhibitor. When a patient is receiving hydrocortisone for adrenal crisis, it can lead to increased gastric acid secretion. A proton pump inhibitor helps reduce acid production and prevents gastric ulcers. Regular insulin (A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Canagliflozin (C) is a medication used for diabetes management and is not relevant here. Propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and may mask signs of hypoglycemia when used with insulin, which is not suitable in this case.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the catheter site for redness and/or swelling is essential in monitoring for signs of infection or complications. Redness and swelling can indicate infection, which requires prompt intervention. A: Applying a sterile gauze dressing is not necessary for a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter unless specified by the healthcare provider. B: Transparent dressings are typically left in place for several days unless there is a specific reason to change them more frequently. D: Using the catheter for drawing blood samples is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection and may interfere with the dialysis process.
Question 6 of 9
The critical care nurse is responsible for monitoring the patient receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). In doing so, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Hemofilter clotting can affect CRRT efficiency. 2. Assessing every 6 hours allows early detection and intervention. 3. Clotting can lead to treatment interruptions or complications. 4. Regular assessment ensures optimal therapy delivery. Other Choices: A: Assessing tubing warmth is not a reliable indicator of CRRT function or complications. C: Covering dialysis lines to protect from light is not a standard practice in CRRT monitoring. D: Using clean technique is not sufficient for vascular access dressing changes; aseptic technique is required for infection prevention.
Question 7 of 9
The patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio. These levels most likely indicate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio suggest kidney dysfunction. This pattern is commonly seen in acute kidney injury, like acute tubular necrosis (ATN), where the kidneys are unable to properly filter waste products. Other choices (A) increased nitrogen intake and (C) hypovolemia would not cause the specific pattern of elevated BUN and creatinine levels with a normal ratio. (D) Fluid resuscitation would actually aim to correct hypovolemia and would not directly affect the BUN and creatinine levels.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.