ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function. Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 7.19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate. In this case, the patient has metabolic acidosis with a low pH and low bicarbonate levels. Administering sodium bicarbonate can help correct the acidosis by increasing the bicarbonate levels and improving the pH. This treatment is essential to address the underlying metabolic imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because administering morphine would not address the root cause of the acidosis and could potentially worsen the respiratory status. Choice B is incorrect as intubation and mechanical ventilation are not indicated solely based on the acid-base imbalance. Choice D is also incorrect as canceling the dialysis session would not address the metabolic acidosis and could potentially worsen the patient's condition.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a patient with a new arteriovenous fistula, but does not hear a bruit or feel a thrill. Pulses distal to the fistula are not palpable. The nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: notify the provider immediately. The absence of bruit, thrill, and palpable distal pulses in a new arteriovenous fistula suggests potential complications like thrombosis or stenosis, requiring urgent intervention. Notifying the provider promptly allows for timely assessment and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Summary: A: Reassessing the patient in an hour may delay necessary intervention for a potentially serious issue. B: Raising the arm above the level of the patient’s heart does not address the underlying problem and may not improve the situation. D: Applying warm packs to the fistula site is not the appropriate intervention for the absence of bruit and thrill and may not address the underlying cause.
Question 4 of 5
Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodialysis combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques. Ultrafiltration removes excess fluid, convection helps in removing solutes, and dialysis involves the diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This comprehensive approach ensures effective removal of both fluid and solutes in critically ill patients. Incorrect Answer Analysis: A: Removing fluids and solutes through convection alone is not the complete process in continuous venovenous hemodialysis. B: While volume overload is addressed, continuous venovenous hemodialysis involves more than just removing plasma water. C: Adding dialysate is not the primary method in continuous venovenous hemodialysis; it involves ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques.
Question 5 of 5
The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. Blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; the patient has not voided in 8 hours, and the bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates a prescription for “stat” administration of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's low blood pressure, tachycardia, and lack of urine output indicate hypovolemia. Fluid replacement with saline will help restore circulating volume, improve blood pressure, and support renal perfusion. A: Blood transfusion is not indicated as the primary issue is hypovolemia, not anemia. C: Inotropic agents are used to increase cardiac contractility but are not the initial treatment for hypovolemia. D: Antiemetics may help with symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of fluid loss and hypovolemia.