Which of the following pathogens can cause meningitis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for choice C (Strep. pneumoniae): 1. Strep. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis. 2. It is a leading pathogen responsible for meningitis in adults and children. 3. It can invade the bloodstream and reach the meninges, causing inflammation. 4. Treatment guidelines often include antibiotics effective against Strep. pneumoniae. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A. Staph. aureus is not a common cause of meningitis. B. Strep. pyogenes typically causes streptococcal infections but not meningitis. D. "None of the above" is incorrect as Strep. pneumoniae can cause meningitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct hierarchical order for virus classification is order, family, subfamily, genus, species. This is because classification starts at a broader level (order) and narrows down to a more specific level (species). Order comes first to group viruses based on common characteristics, followed by family, which further categorizes them. Subfamily refines the classification, then genus groups similar viruses together, and species distinguishes different strains within a genus. Choice A is incorrect because it places genus before family, which is not the correct sequence. Choice B is incorrect as it starts with species, which is the most specific level. Choice D is incorrect because it places genus at the beginning, which is too specific for the hierarchical order.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Macrolides. Listeriosis is typically treated with antibiotics such as Penicillin and ampicillin due to their effectiveness against Listeria monocytogenes. Macrolides, on the other hand, are not first-line agents for listeriosis treatment. They are less effective in treating this bacterial infection compared to Penicillin and ampicillin. Cephalosporins may also be less effective against Listeria monocytogenes compared to Penicillin and ampicillin. Choice D is incorrect as Macrolides are not suitable for listeriosis treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to cause anthrax, a serious infectious disease in humans and animals. Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium that produces toxins leading to the characteristic symptoms of anthrax. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, none of which are related to anthrax. Therefore, based on the specific pathogen responsible for anthrax, Bacillus anthracis is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: rectum. Pinworms typically inhabit the rectum area in humans, where they lay their eggs. This is because the female pinworm migrates to the rectum at night to deposit her eggs near the anus. Other choices are incorrect because pinworms do not reside in the duodenum (A), ileum (B), or transverse colon (C) as their primary location is in the lower gastrointestinal tract near the anus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Viruses. Viruses are acellular, meaning they lack cellular structure, protein synthesizing ability, enzymes, and energy systems. They are essentially genetic material (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat. Fungi (B), bacteria (C), and protozoa (D) are all cellular organisms with protein synthesizing, enzyme, and energy systems. Viruses rely on host cells to replicate and carry out metabolic functions, making them distinct from other groups.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with Balantidiasis, caused by the parasite Balantidium coli. The presence of ciliated oval organisms in the feces is characteristic of this disease. Ulcers in the large intestine are common in Balantidiasis due to tissue invasion by the parasite. Headache, fever, and abdominal pain are typical symptoms. Other choices can be ruled out: B) Amebiasis presents with similar symptoms but usually involves the liver. C) Toxoplasmosis typically presents with lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms. D) Lambliasis usually causes watery diarrhea without blood or mucus. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira. Leptospira is a spiral-shaped bacterium that causes a disease known as leptospirosis, characterized by fever, jajsondice, hemorrhagic rash, and renal insufficiency. The characteristic spiral shape of the bacteria, resembling 'C' and 'S' letters, is a key identifying feature. Leptospira is commonly associated with contaminated water sources and can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals or water. Summary of other choices: B: Treponema - Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of syphilis, which does not typically present with the combination of symptoms described in the question. C: Borrelia - Borrelia species are associated with Lyme disease and relapsing fever, but do not match the specific symptoms and histological appearance described in the question. D: Spirochaeta - Spirochaeta is a genus of bacteria, but specific species within

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct serological test for diagnosing toxoplasmosis is the Complement Binding Assay (A) because it detects antibodies specific to the Toxoplasma gondii parasite. This test is highly sensitive and specific for toxoplasmosis. Choice B, Precipitation test, is not used for toxoplasmosis diagnosis but rather for other diseases like syphilis. Choice C, Neutralization test, is not specific for toxoplasmosis and is used for other types of infections. Choice D, Widal's test, is used for diagnosing typhoid fever and is not relevant for toxoplasmosis. In summary, the correct answer (A) is specific to toxoplasmosis, while the other choices are used for different diseases and are not suitable for diagnosing toxoplasmosis.