ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following pathogens can be transmitted through the placenta?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Listeria monocytogenes. This pathogen can cross the placenta and infect the fetus, leading to serious complications. Listeria can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or severe neonatal infections. Staphylococcus aureus and Corynebacterium diphtheriae do not typically cross the placenta. Choice D is incorrect because Listeria monocytogenes can indeed be transmitted through the placenta, unlike the other pathogens listed.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has severe catarrhal symptoms. Material growth on Bordet-Gengou agar showed mercury- drop like colonies. Examination of the blood smears revealed some small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns. What microorganisms were isolated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella. The presence of mercury-drop like colonies on Bordet-Gengou agar indicates Bordetella pertussis. The small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns are characteristic of Bordetella species. Catarrhal symptoms are typical of pertussis caused by Bordetella pertussis. Summary of other choices: B: Corynebacteria do not typically exhibit mercury-drop like colonies or small ovoid shapes. C: Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacilli and do not grow on Bordet-Gengou agar. D: Meningococcus is a gram-negative diplococcus and does not match the description provided.
Question 3 of 9
The major morphological form of the bacteria are:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the major morphological forms of bacteria. Cocci are spherical, rod-shaped bacteria are called bacilli, and curved bacteria are spirilla. Staphylococci, streptococci, and diplococci are specific types of cocci, not major morphological forms. Basicili and spiralis are not common morphological forms of bacteria. Option D is incorrect as the other choices do represent major morphological forms of bacteria.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presented with an abscess caused by Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters point to Staphylococcus or Micrococcus. 2. Catalase-positive eliminates Streptococcus. 3. Coagulase-positive distinguishes Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Thus, the causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: - B: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. - C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative. - D: Micrococcus luteus is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative.
Question 5 of 9
Primary immunodeficiency diseases are all of the listed, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gamma globulin, as it is not a primary immunodeficiency disease. Primary immunodeficiency diseases are genetic disorders that affect the immune system's ability to fight infections. A: Glanzmann-Riniker hypergammaglobulinemia is a rare primary immunodeficiency characterized by elevated levels of gammaglobulins. C: Variable hypogammaglobulinemia is a primary immunodeficiency disease where there are fluctuating levels of gammaglobulins. D: Bruton hypogammaglobulinemia, also known as X-linked agammaglobulinemia, is a primary immunodeficiency characterized by a lack of B cells and gammaglobulins. In summary, B is the correct answer as gamma globulin is not a primary immunodeficiency disease, whereas A, C, and D are all examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases affecting gammaglobulins levels.
Question 6 of 9
Reassortment of gene segments can occur in one of the following families:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Family Reoviridae. Reassortment of gene segments occurs in segmented viruses like Reoviruses. In Reoviridae, each segment encodes a specific protein, allowing for reassortment to generate new strains. Togaviridae (A) is a non-segmented virus, not capable of reassortment. Picornaviridae (C) and Paramyxoviruses (D) are also non-segmented viruses, limiting their ability for reassortment. Therefore, the correct choice is B due to the segmented nature of Reoviruses allowing for genetic reassortment.
Question 7 of 9
A tube with bacterial culture is very cloudy on the surface but clear in the rest. This shows that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cloudy surface indicates that the bacteria are growing where oxygen is present (aerobes), causing turbidity. The clear bottom suggests that the bacteria are not growing in the absence of oxygen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the observed phenomena do not necessarily indicate the need for an anaerobic chamber, enzyme deficiencies, or the microorganism being non-aerotolerant.
Question 8 of 9
Which is not part of the normal skin microflora
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: serratia spp. This is because serratia spp. are not typically found in the normal skin microflora. Normal skin microflora primarily consist of bacteria such as diphtheroids, alpha-hemolytic streptococci, and epidermidis. Serratia spp. are more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections rather than being a part of the skin's natural bacterial flora. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are commonly found in the normal skin microflora.
Question 9 of 9
“Rabbit fever,†a zoonotic disease, is caused by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rabbit fever, or tularemia, is caused by Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is known to infect a wide range of animals, including rabbits. The other choices, Bartonella henselae (causes cat scratch fever), Spirillum minus (causes rat bite fever), and Yersinia pestis (causes plague) are not associated with rabbit fever. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific pathogen responsible for causing tularemia.