ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.
Question 2 of 9
Which statement about the epidemiology and specific prophylactic of Haemophilus influenzae is NOT CORRECT?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because there is no effective killed vaccine that is protective against all capsular types of Haemophilus spp. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine primarily targets specific capsular types, not all of them. Choice A is incorrect because non-encapsulated strains can indeed be isolated from healthy carriers. Choice C is incorrect as Haemophilus influenzae is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets, not through the air. Choice D is not correct because Choice B is indeed incorrect, making it the right answer.
Question 3 of 9
Toxicity of disinfectant against microbial cells:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because disinfectants are non-selective and can harm a wide range of microbial cells. Disinfectants work by disrupting cell membranes, proteins, and nucleic acids, affecting both harmful and beneficial microorganisms. Choices A and B are incorrect because disinfectants are designed to be potent and non-selective. Choice D is incorrect because the effects of disinfectants are often permanent and irreversible on microbial cells.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a well-known cause of peptic ulcers due to its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and produce enzymes that weaken the protective mucous layer of the stomach lining. Treponema pallidum (choice A) causes syphilis, Vibrio cholerae (choice B) causes cholera, and Escherichia coli (choice D) can cause various infections but is not a common cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with peptic ulcer formation.
Question 5 of 9
A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil and didn't seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The patient's symptoms align with tetanus infection, such as muscle spasms and fever. Step 2: Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria found in soil. Step 3: The wound from tilling soil provides an entry point for the bacteria. Step 4: Delayed seeking medical attention increases the risk of tetanus development. Step 5: Tetanus toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. Summary: Choice A is correct due to symptom alignment, bacterial source, wound type, delayed treatment, and specific neurological effects. Choices B, C, and D lack these specific connections to the given scenario.
Question 6 of 9
The most common cause of cystitis (after Escherichia coli) in healthy sexually active women is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. This bacterium is the second most common cause of cystitis in healthy sexually active women after E. coli. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is commonly found in the gastrointestinal and genital areas. It has a unique ability to adhere to uroepithelial cells, making it a common pathogen in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis is more commonly associated with complicated UTIs, especially in catheterized patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly seen in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is typically associated with UTIs in elderly patients or those with structural abnormalities in the urinary tract.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following does NOT describe Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: interferes with protein synthesis. Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis. They are bactericidal and have a relatively broad spectrum of activity against various bacteria. Choice A, B, and C all describe characteristics of cephalosporins, making them incorrect options.
Question 8 of 9
A wound swab from a patient with a deep tissue infection revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This is because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod bacterium that forms terminal spores. It is commonly associated with deep tissue infections and can cause gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically form spores at the terminal end. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and Bacillus cereus (D) is more commonly associated with food poisoning. In this case, the presence of terminal spores along with the clinical presentation of a deep tissue infection points towards Clostridium perfringens as the most likely causative agent.
Question 9 of 9
In the sixteenth century a father-and-son team, by the name of __________, produced a compound microscope consisting of a simple tube with lenses at each end.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Janssen. In the 16th century, Zacharias Janssen and his father Hans Janssen are credited with inventing the compound microscope. They constructed a simple tube with lenses at each end, allowing for magnification of small objects. This innovation laid the foundation for the development of modern microscopes. Van Leeuwenhoek is known for his contributions to microbiology but did not invent the compound microscope. Semmelweis is known for his work in handwashing and preventing infections. Hooke made significant contributions to microscopy but did not invent the compound microscope.