Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.

Question 2 of 9

The main function of siderophores in bacteria is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: to sequester iron from the environment. Siderophores are molecules produced by bacteria to chelate and acquire iron, an essential nutrient for their growth and survival. By sequestering iron, bacteria can compete with host cells and other microbes for this vital resource. This enhances their ability to thrive and establish infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because siderophores do not directly enhance antibiotic resistance, form capsules, or perform oxidative phosphorylation. These functions are unrelated to the primary role of siderophores in iron acquisition.

Question 3 of 9

Granulomatosis infantiseptica is caused by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Granulomatosis infantiseptica is commonly caused by Listeria monocytogenes, a bacterium known to infect newborns. It can lead to granulomatous lesions in various organs. Staphylococcus aureus and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are not typical causes of this condition in infants. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests all listed bacteria are responsible, which is not accurate. Therefore, the correct answer is C as Listeria monocytogenes is the specific pathogen associated with granulomatosis infantiseptica.

Question 4 of 9

Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces, nasopharyngeal swabs, and cerebrospinal fluid are the most suitable materials for isolating polio viruses due to their presence in these body fluids. Feces contain the virus shed from the intestines, nasopharyngeal swabs collect respiratory secretions where the virus may be present, and cerebrospinal fluid is important for detecting the virus in cases of neurological complications. Choices A and B include irrelevant body fluids that are not typically associated with polio virus transmission. Option C is too limited as the virus can also be present in respiratory secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, not just feces.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with fever and enlarged lymph nodes had a blood smear examined under the microscope. Spiral microorganisms with pointed ends were detected. What is the likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Spiral microorganisms with pointed ends are characteristic of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. This bacterium is known for its corkscrew shape. Other choices are incorrect because Leptospirosis, Lyme disease, and Relapsing fever are caused by different pathogens and do not exhibit spiral microorganisms on blood smears. Syphilis should be suspected in the presence of these specific spiral microorganisms.

Question 6 of 9

The role of adhesins in gram positive bacteria is carried out by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.

Question 7 of 9

Microscopic examination of a smear from a patient with diphtheria revealed dark blue-staining granules at the ends of rod-shaped bacteria. What staining technique was likely used?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisser's staining. Neisser's staining is used to detect metachromatic granules in bacteria, which appear as dark blue-staining granules at the ends of rod-shaped bacteria in diphtheria. This technique specifically targets these granules, making it ideal for identifying Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Gram staining is for classifying bacteria based on cell wall composition, and Giemsa staining is used for detecting parasites and certain blood cells, making them incorrect for identifying granules in diphtheria.

Question 8 of 9

Microscopy of a sputum smear revealed acid-fast bacilli stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presence of acid-fast bacilli stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method indicates a mycobacterial infection. Among the choices, tuberculosis is the most common mycobacterial infection affecting the lungs, presenting with acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, but it typically does not show up in sputum smears. Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is not acid-fast. Pneumonia is a general term for lung inflammation caused by various pathogens, not specifically mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is tuberculosis based on the microscopy findings.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a well-known cause of peptic ulcers due to its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and produce enzymes that weaken the protective mucous layer of the stomach lining. Treponema pallidum (choice A) causes syphilis, Vibrio cholerae (choice B) causes cholera, and Escherichia coli (choice D) can cause various infections but is not a common cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with peptic ulcer formation.

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