ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.
Question 2 of 9
The most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause in adults, Neisseria meningitidis is common in adolescents and young adults, and Haemophilus influenzae is more frequent in children. The other choices, Rubella virus (C) and Herpangina (D), are not bacterial agents known to cause meningitis.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to cause a wide range of infections and its resistance to multiple antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections, pneumonia, bloodstream infections, and surgical site infections, making it a significant threat in healthcare settings. Escherichia coli (choice A) is more commonly associated with foodborne illnesses. Clostridium difficile (choice B) is known for causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Bacillus anthracis (choice D) is primarily associated with anthrax infections, which are not typically acquired in hospital settings.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Question 5 of 9
Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.
Question 6 of 9
A 43-year-old cattle farm worker is brought to the surgeon with fever, malaise, and inflamed lesions on his hands and arms. He reports that about 2 weeks before his presentation at the hospital he noticed small, painless, pruritic papules that quickly enlarged and developed a central vesicle. The vesicles developed into erosion and left painless necrotic ulcers with black, depressed eschar. Gram's staining of the ulcer reveals gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.
Question 7 of 9
A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urogenital trichomoniasis. The presence of pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front, and an undulating membrane in a vaginal smear indicates Trichomonas vaginalis, the causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis. Trichomonas vaginalis is sexually transmitted and causes vaginal discharge, itching, and inflammation. Lambliasis (choice B) is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is not characterized by the described features. Intestinal trichomoniasis (choice C) is caused by a different species, Tritrichomonas foetus, and presents with diarrhea in cattle. Toxoplasmosis (choice D) is caused by Toxoplasma gondii and typically affects the brain and other organs, not the genital tract.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following microorganisms are always in a parasitic form of interaction with the individual?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: viruses. Viruses are always in a parasitic form of interaction with the individual because they cannot survive or reproduce outside of a host cell. They rely on host cells to replicate and cause harm. Non-pathogenic bacteria (choice B) do not always cause harm and can coexist with the individual. Facultative pathogenic bacteria (choice C) can switch between being beneficial and harmful. Therefore, the correct answer is A as viruses always rely on a host for survival and reproduction.
Question 9 of 9
In which of the following disease, the respiratory tract is infected:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Tuberculosis, Q-fever, and Legionnaires disease all can infect the respiratory tract. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection affecting the lungs, Q-fever is caused by a bacterium that primarily affects the lungs, and Legionnaires disease is a severe form of pneumonia. All three diseases specifically target the respiratory system, making them the correct choices. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually infects the respiratory tract, not just one or two of them.